ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
The patient is on parenteral nutrition and is lethargic. The patient reports thirst and headache and has had increased urination. Which problem does the nurse prepare to address?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperglycemia. The patient's symptoms like lethargy, thirst, headache, increased urination are indicative of high blood sugar levels. Lethargy is a common symptom of hyperglycemia due to the body's inability to use glucose effectively. Thirst and increased urination occur as the body tries to get rid of excess glucose through urine. Headache can result from dehydration due to increased urination. To address hyperglycemia, the nurse may need to adjust the patient's parenteral nutrition, monitor blood glucose levels, and potentially administer insulin. Incorrect choices: B: Hypoglycemia - Symptoms of hypoglycemia include sweating, confusion, and shakiness, which are not present in this case. C: Hypercapnia - This is high carbon dioxide levels in the blood, typically caused by respiratory issues, not related to the symptoms described. D: Hypocapnia - This is low carbon dioxide levels
Question 2 of 9
A patient has fallen several times in the pastweek when attempting to get to the bathroom. The patient gets up 3 or 4 times a night to urinate. Which recommendation by the nurse ismostappropriate in correcting this urinaryproblem?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit fluid and caffeine intake before bed. This recommendation addresses the issue of nocturia (frequent urination at night) by reducing the amount of urine produced before bedtime, therefore decreasing the need to get up during the night. Caffeine is a diuretic, so limiting its intake can also help reduce the frequency of urination. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the underlying cause of nocturia and falling. Leaving the bathroom light on (choice B) may help with visibility but does not address the urinary problem. Kegel exercises (choice C) focus on pelvic floor muscles, not bladder muscles. Clearing the path to the bathroom (choice D) can prevent falls but does not address the urinary issue.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with a diagnosis of retinal detachment has undergone a vitreoretinal procedure on an outpatient basis. What subject should the nurse prioritize during discharge education?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Compensating for vision loss for the next several weeks. This is the priority subject for discharge education because vision loss is a common outcome post vitreoretinal procedure. The patient needs to understand how to adapt to this temporary impairment, such as using assistive devices and modifying their environment. A: Risk factors for postoperative CMV is not the priority as it is not a common concern in this situation. C: Non-pharmacologic pain management is important but not the priority compared to vision loss. D: Signs and symptoms of increased intraocular pressure are important but not as crucial as managing vision loss.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following nurses actions carries the greatest potential to prevent hearing loss due to ototoxicity?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because being aware of patients' medication regimens allows nurses to identify and monitor ototoxic medications that can cause hearing loss. By collaborating with other professionals, nurses can adjust medications or recommend alternative treatments to prevent or minimize ototoxicity. This proactive approach directly targets the root cause of potential hearing loss. A: Understanding types of hearing loss is important but does not directly prevent ototoxicity. B: Educating about age-related changes in hearing does not address ototoxicity prevention. C: Educating about noise exposure risks is important for overall hearing health but does not specifically prevent ototoxicity.
Question 5 of 9
Spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered to be an abortion if
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered an abortion if it occurs before 20 weeks gestation. This is based on the medical definition of abortion as the termination of a pregnancy before the fetus is able to survive outside the womb. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the criteria for defining abortion. B and D are specific conditions related to the fetus and the presence of infection, while C refers to passing products of conception intact, which can happen in both spontaneous and induced abortions.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is teaching the staff about informatics.Which information from the staff indicates the nurse needs to follow up?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Computer competency does not equate to informatics competency. Informatics involves more than just basic computer skills; it encompasses the ability to use technology to manage and analyze data for improved healthcare outcomes. A: This is a correct statement about informatics proficiency. B: This is also a correct statement about the skills needed for informatics. D: This is a true statement about nursing informatics being a recognized specialty, but it does not indicate a need for follow-up. In summary, choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the concept of informatics, while choices A, B, and D provide accurate information related to informatics.
Question 7 of 9
When teaching patients about the risk factors of cervical cancer, what would the nurse identify as the most important risk factor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV is the most important risk factor for cervical cancer as it is responsible for almost all cases. Step 1: HPV infection can lead to changes in cervical cells, increasing the risk of cancer. Step 2: Early detection and vaccination against HPV can prevent cervical cancer. Step 3: Other factors like late childbearing, postmenopausal bleeding, and tobacco use may be associated with increased risk but are not as directly linked to cervical cancer development.
Question 8 of 9
Examination of a newborn in the birth room reveals bilateral cataracts. Which disease process in the maternal history would likely cause this abnormality?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rubella. Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to congenital rubella syndrome, which includes bilateral cataracts as a characteristic feature. Rubella virus can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) can also cause congenital cataracts, but rubella is more commonly associated with this abnormality. Syphilis can cause other congenital abnormalities but not bilateral cataracts. HIV does not typically lead to bilateral cataracts in newborns.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is assessing a 73-year-old patient who was diagnosed with metastatic prostate cancer. The nurse notes that the patient is exhibiting signs of loss, grief, and intense sadness. Based on this assessment data, the nurse will document that the patient is most likely in what stage of death and dying?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Depression. In the context of the stages of death and dying proposed by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, a patient exhibiting signs of loss, grief, and intense sadness is likely in the depression stage. This stage involves feelings of hopelessness, despair, and sorrow as the patient comes to terms with the reality of their situation. Denial (choice B) is characterized by a refusal to accept the diagnosis, anger (choice C) involves feelings of resentment and frustration, and resignation (choice D) signifies a sense of acceptance and peace. In this scenario, the patient's emotional state aligns most closely with depression, indicating a deep sense of sadness and mourning.