ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
The patient is on parenteral nutrition and is lethargic. The patient reports thirst and headache and has had increased urination. Which problem does the nurse prepare to address?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperglycemia. The patient's symptoms like lethargy, thirst, headache, increased urination are indicative of high blood sugar levels. Lethargy is a common symptom of hyperglycemia due to the body's inability to use glucose effectively. Thirst and increased urination occur as the body tries to get rid of excess glucose through urine. Headache can result from dehydration due to increased urination. To address hyperglycemia, the nurse may need to adjust the patient's parenteral nutrition, monitor blood glucose levels, and potentially administer insulin. Incorrect choices: B: Hypoglycemia - Symptoms of hypoglycemia include sweating, confusion, and shakiness, which are not present in this case. C: Hypercapnia - This is high carbon dioxide levels in the blood, typically caused by respiratory issues, not related to the symptoms described. D: Hypocapnia - This is low carbon dioxide levels
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is providing an educational event to a local mens group about prostate cancer. The nurse should cite an increased risk of prostate cancer in what ethnic group?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: African Americans. African American men have the highest incidence rate of prostate cancer among all ethnic groups. This is due to genetic and environmental factors, as well as disparities in access to healthcare. Native Americans (A), Caucasian Americans (B), and Asian Americans (D) have lower rates of prostate cancer compared to African Americans. It is important to educate the local men's group about this increased risk in African Americans to promote awareness and early detection.
Question 3 of 9
A patient was prescribed an oral antibiotic for the treatment of sinusitis. The patient has now stopped, stating she developed a rash shortly after taking the first dose of the drug. What is the nurses most appropriate response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Refer the woman to her primary care provider to have the medication changed. Rationale: 1. Rash after taking the first dose of an antibiotic suggests a possible allergic reaction. 2. Allergic reactions can range from mild to severe, including anaphylaxis. 3. It is crucial to discontinue the suspected medication to prevent worsening of the reaction. 4. Referring the patient to their primary care provider ensures proper evaluation and management. 5. Changing the medication is necessary to avoid potential harm from continued exposure. Summary: A: Continuing the medication can worsen the allergic reaction and is not recommended. C: Going to the emergency department may be excessive at this point for a mild rash. D: Taking an antihistamine does not address the underlying issue of an allergic reaction.
Question 4 of 9
A patients ocular tumor has necessitated enucleation and the patient will be fitted with a prosthesis. The nurse should address what nursing diagnosis when planning the patients discharge education?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Disturbed body image. Enucleation can have a significant impact on a patient's self-image and self-esteem. By addressing this nursing diagnosis, the nurse can help the patient cope with the changes in their physical appearance and support them in adjusting to wearing a prosthesis. Summary: - Choice B (Chronic pain) is incorrect because enucleation may cause acute pain initially, but chronic pain is not a common concern post-enucleation. - Choice C (Ineffective protection) is incorrect because enucleation does not necessarily affect the eye's protection mechanism. - Choice D (Unilateral neglect) is incorrect as it refers to a neurological condition unrelated to the patient's situation post-enucleation.
Question 5 of 9
A patient on the oncology unit is receiving carmustine, a chemotherapy agent, and the nurse is aware that a significant side effect of this medication is thrombocytopenia. Which symptom should the nurse assess for in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epistaxis (nose bleed). Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to impaired blood clotting and an increased risk of bleeding. Epistaxis is a common symptom of thrombocytopenia due to the lack of platelets to aid in clot formation. Assessing for epistaxis in patients receiving carmustine is crucial to monitor and manage potential bleeding complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with thrombocytopenia.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a 33-year-old male who has come to the clinic for a physical examination. He states that he has not had a routine physical in 5 years. During the examination, the physician finds that digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals stoney hardening in the posterior lobe of the prostate gland that is not mobile. The nurse recognizes that the observation typically indicates what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Evidence of a more advanced lesion. A stoney hardening in the posterior lobe of the prostate gland that is not mobile is indicative of a more advanced lesion, such as prostate cancer. This finding suggests that the lesion has progressed beyond the early stages. In early prostate cancer, the prostate gland may feel firm but not stoney hard, and the lesion is usually mobile. Metastatic disease would involve spread of the cancer to other parts of the body, which is not evident from the DRE alone. A normal finding would not present as stoney hardening and lack of mobility in the prostate gland during a DRE.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is providing discharge education to an adult patient who will begin a regimen of ocular medications for the treatment of glaucoma. How can the nurse best determine if the patient is able to self-administer these medications safely and effectively?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. By asking the patient to demonstrate the instillation of medications, the nurse can directly assess the patient's ability to self-administer the medications safely and effectively. This method allows for a practical demonstration of skills, which is more reliable than relying solely on verbal descriptions or past experiences. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because assessing for previous inability, describing the method, or evaluating functional status may not directly demonstrate the patient's competency in self-administering ocular medications.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with metastatic cancer has developed trigeminal neuralgia and is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for pain relief. What principle applies to the administration of this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The patient should be monitored for bone marrow depression. Carbamazepine can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased production of blood cells. Monitoring blood counts is crucial to detect this adverse effect early. Choice A is incorrect as Tegretol can have serious adverse effects, including bone marrow depression. Choice C is incorrect as the main side effects of carbamazepine are related to the central nervous system, not renal dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as medications like carbamazepine should be started at a low dose and gradually titrated up to minimize side effects.
Question 9 of 9
As the triage nurse in the emergency room, you are reviewing results for the high-risk obstetric patient who is in labor because of traumatic injury experienced as a result of a motor vehicle accident (MVA). You note that the Kleihauer–Betke test is positive. Based on this information, you anticipate that
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: immediate birth is required. The Kleihauer–Betke test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage in situations where there is a risk of fetal blood entering the maternal circulation, such as trauma during pregnancy. A positive result indicates a significant fetal-maternal hemorrhage, which can lead to Rh incompatibility and severe fetal anemia. Immediate birth is required to prevent complications and ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choice B is incorrect as transferring the patient to the critical care unit does not address the underlying issue of fetal-maternal hemorrhage. Choice C is incorrect as RhoGAM is typically administered to prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers carrying Rh-positive babies, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as a tetanus shot is not directly related to the positive Kleihauer–Betke test result indicating fetal-maternal hemorrhage.