Correct Answer: C

Rationale: First, the nurse should assess the patient's lungs to rule out any potential respiratory issues causing fluid retention. This is crucial as the patient has signs of fluid imbalance with decreased output and increased weight. Assessing the lungs can help identify conditions like heart failure or pneumonia that may contribute to these changes. Drawing a trough level (choice A) is not a priority as it doesn't address the immediate concern of fluid imbalance. Placing the patient on fluid restriction (choice B) should only be done after identifying the cause of the imbalance. Inserting an indwelling catheter (choice D) is not necessary at this point as the issue is related to fluid balance, not urinary elimination.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Titrate to a predefined endpoint using a standard sedation scale. This approach ensures individualized dosing based on the patient's response, minimizing the risk of over-sedation or under-treatment. It allows for careful monitoring and adjustment of dosage to achieve the desired level of sedation while avoiding adverse effects. A: Administering medication around the clock may lead to unnecessary sedation and increased risk of side effects. B: Administering medications through a feeding tube is not recommended for benzodiazepines as it may affect absorption and increase the risk of complications. C: Giving the highest allowable dose without considering individual response can result in excessive sedation and adverse effects.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assess and intervene for causes of agitation. In a critically ill patient, agitation while intubated could indicate underlying issues like pain, delirium, or inadequate sedation. By assessing and addressing the root cause of agitation, the nurse can improve patient comfort and prevent potential harm from restraints. Removing restraints periodically for skin integrity (B) and range of motion (C) is important but should not be the primary focus when agitation is present. Maintaining restraints (A) without addressing the agitation could lead to increased distress and potential complications.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Futility. In this scenario, the primary care provider suggests making the patient a "do not resuscitate" status because further medical treatment is deemed futile. Futility refers to situations where medical interventions are unlikely to achieve the desired outcome. This decision is made when the benefits of continuing treatment do not outweigh the burdens on the patient. Summary: A: Brain death does not apply here as the patient is not brain dead. C: Incompetence refers to the patient's ability to make decisions, not the medical concept being illustrated. D: Life-prolonging procedures are not being discussed; the focus is on the futility of further treatment.

Correct Answer: E

Rationale: The correct answer is not provided, but based on the events described, the official time of death recorded in the medical record should be 1810 (Choice D). At this time, the cardiac monitor shows flatline, indicating the cessation of cardiac activity, which is the universally accepted point of declaring death. Choice A (1300) is incorrect because that is when diagnostic tests for brain death were completed, but the patient was not officially declared dead at that time. Choice B (1330) is incorrect as this is when the primary care provider reviewed the test results and documented brain death in the progress note, but the patient was not officially declared dead at this time either. Choice C (1400) is incorrect as there is no significant event occurring at this time that signifies the patient's death. Therefore, the most appropriate and official time of death recorded in the medical record would be 1810 when the cardiac monitor shows flatline.