The patient is in a progressive care unit following arteriovenous fistula implantation in his left upper arm, and is due to have blood drawn with his next set of vital signs and assessment. When the nurse assesses the patient, the nurse should

Questions 28

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Clinical Skills questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

The patient is in a progressive care unit following arteriovenous fistula implantation in his left upper arm, and is due to have blood drawn with his next set of vital signs and assessment. When the nurse assesses the patient, the nurse should

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Auscultating the left arm for a bruit and palpating for a thrill post arteriovenous fistula implantation is crucial to assess the patency and functionality of the fistula. A bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, while a thrill signifies the presence of a strong pulse through the fistula. These assessments help identify any complications like stenosis or thrombosis. Drawing blood or taking blood pressures from the arm with the fistula can lead to inaccurate results or damage the fistula. Starting a new IV line in the left lower arm is unnecessary and not relevant to monitoring the arteriovenous fistula.

Question 2 of 9

Peritoneal dialysis is different from hemodialysis in that peritoneal dialysis

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because peritoneal dialysis uses the patient's own semipermeable membrane, the peritoneal membrane, to filter waste and excess fluid from the blood. This membrane allows for the exchange of fluids and solutes, making it an effective method for dialysis. A is incorrect because peritoneal dialysis can be used for acute kidney injury. C is incorrect as peritoneal dialysis can address drug overdose and electrolyte imbalance by removing toxins and balancing electrolytes. D is incorrect as peritoneal dialysis can be used in cases of water intoxication by helping to remove excess fluid from the body.

Question 3 of 9

The patient is on intake and output (I&O), as well as daily weights. The nurse notes that output is considerably less than intake over the last shift, and daily weight is 1 kg more than yesterday. The nurse should

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: assess the patient's lungs. The discrepancy between intake, output, and weight gain indicates a potential fluid imbalance. By assessing the patient's lungs, the nurse can identify signs of fluid overload, such as crackles or difficulty breathing, which could explain the weight gain and imbalance. This step is crucial in determining the underlying cause and guiding further interventions. Drawing a trough level (A) or inserting an indwelling catheter (D) are not necessary at this point and may not address the immediate issue. Placing the patient on fluid restriction (B) should only be considered after a thorough assessment to determine the cause of the imbalance.

Question 4 of 9

A normal urine output is considered to be

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 to 2 L/day. Normal urine output typically ranges from 1 to 2 liters per day, which is considered adequate for maintaining proper hydration and eliminating waste products. A: 80 to 125 mL/min is too low for daily output. B: 180 L/day is excessively high and unrealistic. C: 80 mL/min is also too low for daily urine output. Therefore, D is the most appropriate choice based on standard guidelines for urine excretion.

Question 5 of 9

The patient is in need of immediate hemodialysis, but has no vascular access. The nurse prepares the patient for insertion of

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: a percutaneous catheter at the bedside. In this urgent situation, a percutaneous catheter can be quickly inserted at the bedside to provide immediate vascular access for hemodialysis. This option allows for rapid initiation of treatment without the need for surgical placement or waiting for a more permanent access like an arteriovenous fistula or graft. Incorrect Choices: B: A percutaneous tunneled catheter may require more time for insertion due to tunneling and may not be suitable for immediate use. C: An arteriovenous fistula is a more permanent access created surgically and requires time to mature before being used for hemodialysis. D: An arteriovenous graft is also a surgical option that requires time to heal and mature before being used for hemodialysis.

Question 6 of 9

The patient is in a progressive care unit following arteriovenous fistula implantation in his left upper arm, and is due to have blood drawn with his next set of vital signs and assessment. When the nurse assesses the patient, the nurse should

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Auscultating the left arm for a bruit and palpating for a thrill post arteriovenous fistula implantation is crucial to assess the patency and functionality of the fistula. A bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, while a thrill signifies the presence of a strong pulse through the fistula. These assessments help identify any complications like stenosis or thrombosis. Drawing blood or taking blood pressures from the arm with the fistula can lead to inaccurate results or damage the fistula. Starting a new IV line in the left lower arm is unnecessary and not relevant to monitoring the arteriovenous fistula.

Question 7 of 9

In hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome, the laboratory results are similar to those of diabetic ketoacidosis, with three major exceptions. What differences would you expect to see in patients with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome, patients have high blood glucose levels, leading to dehydration and increased serum osmolality. Unlike diabetic ketoacidosis, there is no significant ketosis in hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Higher serum glucose, higher osmolality, and no ketosis. A: Lower serum glucose, lower osmolality, and greater ketosis - This is incorrect because hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is characterized by high blood glucose levels and no significant ketosis. B: Lower serum glucose, lower osmolality, and milder ketosis - This is incorrect because hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome presents with higher glucose levels and no ketosis. C: Higher serum glucose, higher osmolality, and greater ketosis - This is incorrect because hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome does not typically involve significant ketosis.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following would be seen in a patient with myxedema coma?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased reflexes. In myxedema coma, a severe form of hypothyroidism, patients often present with decreased mental status, hypothermia, and bradycardia. Decreased reflexes are a common neurological manifestation due to the slowing of metabolic processes and the central nervous system depression associated with this condition. Hyperthermia (B) is not typically seen in myxedema coma, as patients usually have low body temperature. Hyperventilation (C) is also unlikely, as respiratory depression is more common. Tachycardia (D) is incorrect because bradycardia is more characteristic of myxedema coma.

Question 9 of 9

The patient’s potassium level is 0 mEq/L. Besides dialysis, which of the following actually reduces plasma potassium levels and total body potassium content safely in a patient with renal dysfunction?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate. It works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the colon, leading to potassium excretion. A is the safest option without the risk of causing hypernatremia or intestinal necrosis like B. Regular insulin (C) may cause hypoglycemia and is not as effective as A in reducing potassium levels. Calcium gluconate (D) does not directly reduce potassium levels and is used for treating hyperkalemia-related cardiac toxicity.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days