ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The patient is getting hemodialysis for the second time when he complains of a headache and nausea and, a little later, of becoming confused. The nurse realizes these are symptoms of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: dialysis disequilibrium syndrome. This occurs when there is a rapid decrease in urea concentration in the blood during hemodialysis, causing fluid shifts and cerebral edema leading to symptoms like headache, nausea, and confusion. Dialyzer membrane incompatibility (A) would present with allergic reactions, not neurological symptoms. A shift in potassium levels (B) may cause muscle weakness or cardiac arrhythmias, but not the described symptoms. Hypothermia (D) would present with low body temperature and shivering, not the neurological symptoms mentioned.
Question 2 of 5
The patient is admitted with acute kidney injury from a postrenal cause. Acceptable treatments for that diagnosis include: (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Bladder catheterization helps relieve urinary obstruction, a common postrenal cause of acute kidney injury. 2. By draining urine from the bladder, it prevents further damage to the kidneys. 3. This intervention addresses the underlying cause of the kidney injury, leading to improvement. Summary: - Choice A is correct as it directly addresses the postrenal cause by relieving urinary obstruction. - Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not target the specific postrenal cause of acute kidney injury.
Question 3 of 5
A male client who has been taking propranolol (Inderal) for 18 months tells the nurse that the healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood pressure has been normal for the past three months. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ask the healthcare provider about tapering the drug dose over the next week. This answer is correct because propranolol is a beta-blocker, and abrupt discontinuation can lead to rebound hypertension, angina, or even myocardial infarction due to the sudden withdrawal of the medication. Tapering the drug dose over time allows the body to adjust gradually and reduces the risk of these adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because obtaining another antihypertensive prescription is not necessary if the client's blood pressure has been normal for the past three months. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication without tapering can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because simply reporting uncomfortable symptoms without taking appropriate action (tapering the drug dose) is not addressing the potential risks associated with abrupt discontinuation of propranolol.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 prior to administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter. Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer the dose as prescribed. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to treat atrial flutter. The vital signs obtained are within normal range for this medication. A heart rate of 92 and blood pressure of 110/76 are not contraindications for administering verapamil. Option A is incorrect as calcium gluconate is not indicated in this situation. Option B is incorrect because the vital signs are stable and do not warrant withholding the medication. Option D is incorrect as there is no need to delay the administration of verapamil based on the vital signs provided.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse identifies a client's needs and formulates the nursing problem of, 'Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to mental impairment and decreased intake, as evidenced by increasing confusion and weight loss of more than 30 pounds over the last 6 months.' Which short-term goal is best for this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct short-term goal for the client with imbalanced nutrition is choice B: Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the end of one week. This goal is specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART). By setting a goal for the client to eat a specific amount of meals within a defined timeframe, it allows for objective monitoring of progress. This goal also addresses the client's decreased intake and aims to improve their nutritional status gradually. Choice A is incorrect as verbalizing understanding does not directly address the client's nutritional needs. Choice C is not appropriate as it does not promote independence in meal consumption. Choice D is not the best short-term goal as it focuses on the outcome of weight gain rather than the process of increasing food intake. Overall, choice B is the most appropriate short-term goal as it targets the client's specific nutritional needs and provides a clear direction for intervention.