ATI RN
Nursing Clinical Skills questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The patient is getting hemodialysis for the second time when he complains of a headache and nausea and, a little later, of becoming confused. The nurse realizes these are symptoms of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: dialysis disequilibrium syndrome. This syndrome occurs when there is a rapid shift in electrolytes, especially in the brain, due to the removal of waste products during hemodialysis. The symptoms of headache, nausea, and confusion align with this syndrome as the brain struggles to adjust to the changes. Dialyzer membrane incompatibility (A) is unlikely as it typically presents with allergic reactions, not neurological symptoms. A shift in potassium levels (B) may cause symptoms like muscle weakness or irregular heartbeat, not headache and confusion. Hypothermia (D) would present with low body temperature, shivering, and confusion, but in this case, the symptoms are more indicative of dialysis disequilibrium syndrome.
Question 2 of 9
The term used to describe an increase in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: azotemia. Azotemia refers to elevated levels of nitrogenous waste products like BUN and creatinine in the blood. This occurs when the kidneys are not functioning properly, leading to decreased filtration and excretion of waste products. Oliguria (A) is reduced urine output, not specific to elevated BUN and creatinine levels. Acute kidney injury (C) is a broader term for sudden loss of kidney function. Prerenal disease (D) typically refers to conditions affecting blood flow to the kidneys, leading to decreased kidney function, but it does not specifically describe the increase in BUN and creatinine levels.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute kidney injury who is being treated with hemodialysis. The patient asks if he will need dialysis for the rest of his life. Which of the following would be the best response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “Recovery is possible, but it may take several months.” This response is the best because acute kidney injury can be reversible with appropriate management, and recovery may take time. It is important to provide hope and encouragement to the patient. A: “Unfortunately, kidney injury is not reversible; it is permanent.” - This is incorrect as acute kidney injury can be reversible with timely intervention and proper treatment. B: “Kidney function usually returns within 2 weeks.” - This is incorrect because the recovery timeline varies for each individual and can take longer than 2 weeks. C: “You will know for sure if you start urinating a lot all at once.” - This is incorrect as increased urine output may not always indicate complete recovery from acute kidney injury.
Question 4 of 9
A normal urine output is considered to be
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 to 2 L/day. Normal urine output typically ranges from 1 to 2 liters per day, which is considered adequate for maintaining proper hydration and eliminating waste products. A: 80 to 125 mL/min is too low for daily output. B: 180 L/day is excessively high and unrealistic. C: 80 mL/min is also too low for daily urine output. Therefore, D is the most appropriate choice based on standard guidelines for urine excretion.
Question 5 of 9
The patient is in need of immediate hemodialysis, but has no vascular access. The nurse prepares the patient for insertion of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: a percutaneous catheter at the bedside. In this urgent situation, a percutaneous catheter can be quickly inserted at the bedside to provide immediate vascular access for hemodialysis. This option allows for rapid initiation of treatment without the need for surgical placement or waiting for a more permanent access like an arteriovenous fistula or graft. Incorrect Choices: B: A percutaneous tunneled catheter may require more time for insertion due to tunneling and may not be suitable for immediate use. C: An arteriovenous fistula is a more permanent access created surgically and requires time to mature before being used for hemodialysis. D: An arteriovenous graft is also a surgical option that requires time to heal and mature before being used for hemodialysis.
Question 6 of 9
The critical care nurse knows that in critically ill patients, renal dysfunction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because renal dysfunction is a common issue in critically ill patients due to factors like sepsis or hypoperfusion. This affects nearly two thirds of patients, leading to potential complications. Choice A is incorrect as renal dysfunction is common, not rare. Choice C is incorrect as mortality rates can still be high even with renal replacement therapy. Choice D is incorrect as renal dysfunction can significantly impact morbidity, mortality, and quality of life in critically ill patients.
Question 7 of 9
The patient’s potassium level is 0 mEq/L. Besides dialysis, which of the following actually reduces plasma potassium levels and total body potassium content safely in a patient with renal dysfunction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate. It works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the colon, leading to potassium excretion. A is the safest option without the risk of causing hypernatremia or intestinal necrosis like B. Regular insulin (C) may cause hypoglycemia and is not as effective as A in reducing potassium levels. Calcium gluconate (D) does not directly reduce potassium levels and is used for treating hyperkalemia-related cardiac toxicity.
Question 8 of 9
The patient is in a progressive care unit following arteriovenous fistula implantation in his left upper arm, and is due to have blood drawn with his next set of vital signs and assessment. When the nurse assesses the patient, the nurse should
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Auscultating the left arm for a bruit and palpating for a thrill post arteriovenous fistula implantation is crucial to assess the patency and functionality of the fistula. A bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, while a thrill signifies the presence of a strong pulse through the fistula. These assessments help identify any complications like stenosis or thrombosis. Drawing blood or taking blood pressures from the arm with the fistula can lead to inaccurate results or damage the fistula. Starting a new IV line in the left lower arm is unnecessary and not relevant to monitoring the arteriovenous fistula.
Question 9 of 9
The patient’s serum creatinine level is 7 mg/dL. The expected BUN level should be
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (10 to 20 mg/dL). In conditions where the serum creatinine level is elevated (7 mg/dL in this case), the BUN level is expected to also be elevated due to impaired kidney function. BUN levels are typically around 10-20 mg/dL, so this range is the most appropriate given the elevated creatinine level. Choice A (1 to 2 mg/dL) is too low and would not be expected with a creatinine level of 7 mg/dL. Choice B (7 to 14 mg/dL) is a bit low for such a high creatinine level. Choice D (20 to 30 mg/dL) is too high as it exceeds the typical range for BUN levels. Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate range based on the given information.