ATI RN
Nursing Clinical Skills questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The patient is getting hemodialysis for the second time when he complains of a headache and nausea and, a little later, of becoming confused. The nurse realizes these are symptoms of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: dialysis disequilibrium syndrome. This syndrome occurs when there is a rapid shift in electrolytes, especially in the brain, due to the removal of waste products during hemodialysis. The symptoms of headache, nausea, and confusion align with this syndrome as the brain struggles to adjust to the changes. Dialyzer membrane incompatibility (A) is unlikely as it typically presents with allergic reactions, not neurological symptoms. A shift in potassium levels (B) may cause symptoms like muscle weakness or irregular heartbeat, not headache and confusion. Hypothermia (D) would present with low body temperature, shivering, and confusion, but in this case, the symptoms are more indicative of dialysis disequilibrium syndrome.
Question 2 of 9
The patient is in need of immediate hemodialysis, but has no vascular access. The nurse prepares the patient for insertion of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: a percutaneous catheter at the bedside. In this urgent situation, a percutaneous catheter can be quickly inserted at the bedside to provide immediate vascular access for hemodialysis. This option allows for rapid initiation of treatment without the need for surgical placement or waiting for a more permanent access like an arteriovenous fistula or graft. Incorrect Choices: B: A percutaneous tunneled catheter may require more time for insertion due to tunneling and may not be suitable for immediate use. C: An arteriovenous fistula is a more permanent access created surgically and requires time to mature before being used for hemodialysis. D: An arteriovenous graft is also a surgical option that requires time to heal and mature before being used for hemodialysis.
Question 3 of 9
Daily weights are being recorded for the patient with a urine output that has been less than the intravenous and oral intake. The weight yesterday was 5 kg. This morning it is 99 kg. The nurse understands that this corresponds to a(n)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: fluid retention of 1.5 liters. The weight gain from 5 kg to 99 kg indicates an increase of 94 kg. Since 1 kg of weight gain is approximately equal to 1 liter of fluid retention, the patient has retained 94 liters of fluid. Therefore, the correct choice is fluid retention of 1.5 liters. Choice B is incorrect because the weight gain indicates fluid retention, not loss. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions equal intake and output, which does not match the weight gain observed. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests fluid loss, which contradicts the weight gain.
Question 4 of 9
Continuous venovenous hemofiltration is used to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because continuous venovenous hemofiltration primarily removes fluids and solutes through convection. Convection involves the movement of solutes across a semi-permeable membrane by the force of the fluid flow. This process helps to achieve fluid balance and manage electrolyte levels in patients with renal failure. Choice B is incorrect because hemofiltration does not specifically target plasma water; it aims to remove both fluids and solutes. Choice C is incorrect as hemofiltration does not involve adding dialysate; it relies on the patient's blood passing through a filter to remove waste products. Choice D is incorrect because while hemofiltration may involve aspects of ultrafiltration and dialysis, the primary mechanism is convection for removing fluids and solutes.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following laboratory values would be found in a patient with syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum sodium 115 mEq/L. In syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), there is excess release of ADH leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Low serum sodium levels (hyponatremia) are characteristic of SIADH due to water retention without proportional sodium retention. Choices A and B are not indicative of SIADH. Choice D, high serum sodium, is more likely in conditions causing dehydration or excessive sodium intake.
Question 6 of 9
The critical care nurse knows that in critically ill patients, renal dysfunction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because renal dysfunction is a common issue in critically ill patients due to factors like sepsis or hypoperfusion. This affects nearly two thirds of patients, leading to potential complications. Choice A is incorrect as renal dysfunction is common, not rare. Choice C is incorrect as mortality rates can still be high even with renal replacement therapy. Choice D is incorrect as renal dysfunction can significantly impact morbidity, mortality, and quality of life in critically ill patients.
Question 7 of 9
The patient’s serum creatinine level is 7 mg/dL. The expected BUN level should be
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (10 to 20 mg/dL). In conditions where the serum creatinine level is elevated (7 mg/dL in this case), the BUN level is expected to also be elevated due to impaired kidney function. BUN levels are typically around 10-20 mg/dL, so this range is the most appropriate given the elevated creatinine level. Choice A (1 to 2 mg/dL) is too low and would not be expected with a creatinine level of 7 mg/dL. Choice B (7 to 14 mg/dL) is a bit low for such a high creatinine level. Choice D (20 to 30 mg/dL) is too high as it exceeds the typical range for BUN levels. Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate range based on the given information.
Question 8 of 9
A patient has been on daily, high-dose glucocorticoid therapy for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. His prescription runs out before his next appointment with his physician. Because he is asymptomatic, he thinks it is all right to withhold the medication for 3 days. What is likely to happen to this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: He will go into adrenal crisis. Rationale: 1. Glucocorticoids suppress the body's natural production of cortisol. 2. Abruptly stopping high-dose glucocorticoid therapy can lead to adrenal insufficiency. 3. Adrenal crisis can result in symptoms like weakness, fatigue, hypotension, and potentially life-threatening consequences. 4. This patient, being on high-dose glucocorticoid therapy, is at risk for adrenal crisis if he abruptly stops the medication. Summary: B: Thyroid storm is not related to abruptly stopping glucocorticoid therapy. C: Autoimmune disease remission is unlikely to occur within 3 days of stopping medication. D: It is not appropriate to stop high-dose glucocorticoid therapy abruptly, as it can lead to adverse effects like adrenal crisis.
Question 9 of 9
Mechanisms for development of diabetes insipidus include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: ADH deficiency. Diabetes insipidus is caused by a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to excessive urine production and thirst. ADH is responsible for regulating water reabsorption in the kidneys. When ADH levels are low or absent, the kidneys cannot concentrate urine effectively, resulting in excessive urine output. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: ADH excess would not lead to diabetes insipidus, as it would result in increased water reabsorption and concentrated urine. C: ADH insensitivity refers to a condition where the body does not respond to ADH, but it does not cause diabetes insipidus. D: ADH replacement therapy is actually a treatment for diabetes insipidus, not a mechanism for its development.