ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The patient is asking the nurse about the best way to stay healthy. The nurse explains to the patient which teaching points? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Increasing physical activity helps in maintaining a healthy weight and overall health. 2. Regular exercise can reduce the risk of chronic diseases like heart disease and diabetes. 3. Physical activity improves mental health and overall well-being. 4. Exercise boosts immunity and helps in managing stress levels. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B. Keeping total fat intake to 10% or less is a specific dietary recommendation and not a comprehensive approach to staying healthy. C. Maintaining body weight in a healthy range is important but does not encompass all aspects of staying healthy. D. Choosing and preparing foods with little salt is a specific dietary recommendation and does not address the importance of physical activity in staying healthy.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is reviewing the instructions given to a patient at 24 weeks’ gestation for a glucose challenge test (GCT). The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching when she makes which statement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “I will have blood drawn at 1 hour after I drink the glucose solution.” This statement demonstrates understanding of the GCT procedure. The glucose challenge test involves drinking a sugary solution, followed by blood drawn 1 hour later to measure blood glucose levels. This timing is crucial for assessing the body's ability to metabolize glucose, which helps in diagnosing gestational diabetes. Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect: A: “I have to fast the night before the test.” - This is incorrect as fasting is not required for the GCT. B: “I will drink a sugary solution containing 100 g of glucose.” - This is incorrect as the GCT typically involves drinking a solution with a standardized amount of glucose, usually 50 g, not 100 g. D: “I should keep track of my baby’s movements between now and the test.” - This is unrelated to the GCT procedure and does not demonstrate understanding of the
Question 3 of 9
Anti-infective prophylaxis is indicated for a pregnant patient with a history of mitral valve stenosis related to rheumatic heart disease because the patient is at risk of developing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: bacterial endocarditis. Mitral valve stenosis increases the risk of bacterial endocarditis due to turbulent blood flow and potential damage to the heart valve. Prophylactic antibiotics are recommended before certain procedures to prevent bacterial endocarditis in patients with underlying cardiac conditions. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect as mitral valve stenosis does not directly increase the risk of developing hypertension. Choice B, postpartum infection, is not directly related to the risk associated with mitral valve stenosis. Choice D, upper respiratory infections, is not a specific risk associated with mitral valve stenosis in pregnant patients.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted for the treatment of AIDS. In the morning, the patient tells the nurse that he experienced night sweats and recently coughed up some blood. What is the nurses most appropriate action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the patient on respiratory isolation and inform the physician. This is the most appropriate action because the patient is exhibiting symptoms that could be indicative of a potentially infectious respiratory condition, such as tuberculosis or pneumonia. Placing the patient on respiratory isolation helps prevent the spread of infection to others and protects healthcare workers. Informing the physician promptly allows for further evaluation and appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect as Kaposi's sarcoma typically presents with skin lesions rather than respiratory symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as reviewing viral load and CD4+ count would not address the immediate concern of respiratory symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as oral suctioning is not the appropriate intervention for night sweats and coughing up blood.
Question 5 of 9
Which major neonatal complication is carefully monitored after the birth of the infant of a diabetic mother?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypoglycemia. Infants of diabetic mothers are at risk for hypoglycemia due to excessive insulin production in response to high glucose levels in utero. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent hypoglycemia-related complications. B: Hypercalcemia is not a major neonatal complication seen in infants of diabetic mothers. C: Hypoinsulinemia refers to low levels of insulin, which is not typically a concern in infants of diabetic mothers. D: Hypobilirubinemia is not a common complication in infants of diabetic mothers. In summary, monitoring for hypoglycemia is essential in infants of diabetic mothers to prevent potential complications.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse wants to reduce data entry errors onthe computer system. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because charting on the computer immediately after care is provided reduces the chances of forgetting important details and ensures accuracy. It also allows for real-time documentation, improving patient care. Choice A is incorrect as using the same password all the time poses a security risk. Choice B is incorrect as sharing passwords compromises confidentiality. Choice C is incorrect as printing out and reviewing notes at home does not address data entry errors on the computer system.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is teaching a health class about thegastrointestinal tract. The nurse will explain that which portion of the digestive tract absorbs most of the nutrients?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Duodenum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine where most of the digestion and absorption of nutrients occurs. It receives partially digested food from the stomach and mixes it with bile and pancreatic enzymes to break down nutrients. The villi in the duodenum increase the surface area for absorption. The other choices (A: Ileum, B: Cecum, C: Stomach) are incorrect because the ileum and cecum are parts of the small intestine where some absorption occurs but not as much as in the duodenum. The stomach primarily digests food and does not absorb many nutrients.
Question 8 of 9
A woman calls the clinic and tells the nurse she has had bloody drainage from her right nipple. The nurse makes an appointment for this patient, expecting the physician or practitioner to order what diagnostic test on this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breast ultrasound. Bloody drainage from the nipple can be indicative of various conditions such as breast cancer. A breast ultrasound is a non-invasive imaging test that can help visualize any abnormalities in the breast tissue, including masses or tumors. It is commonly used to evaluate breast symptoms like nipple discharge. Radiography (B) is not typically used for evaluating breast conditions. Positron emission testing (PET) (C) is more commonly used in cancer staging and may not be the first-line test for this symptom. Galactography (D) is a specific imaging test used to evaluate the ducts of the breast and may not be the initial test for bloody nipple discharge.
Question 9 of 9
A 30-year-old patient has come to the clinic for her yearly examination. The patient asks the nurse about ovarian cancer. What should the nurse state when describing risk factors for ovarian cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The nurse should inform the patient that most cases of ovarian cancer are considered to be random, with no obvious causation. This is the correct answer because the exact cause of ovarian cancer is not well understood, and the majority of cases are not linked to specific risk factors. Step 2: Choice A is incorrect because the use of oral contraceptives actually decreases the risk of ovarian cancer. Step 3: Choice B is incorrect because tobacco use is not a major risk factor for ovarian cancer. It is primarily associated with lung and other types of cancer. Step 4: Choice D is incorrect because while a family history of ovarian cancer can increase the risk, the majority of women diagnosed with ovarian cancer do not have a family history of the disease.