ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The patient is asking the nurse about the best way to stay healthy. The nurse explains to the patient which teaching points? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Increasing physical activity helps in maintaining a healthy weight and overall health. 2. Regular exercise can reduce the risk of chronic diseases like heart disease and diabetes. 3. Physical activity improves mental health and overall well-being. 4. Exercise boosts immunity and helps in managing stress levels. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B. Keeping total fat intake to 10% or less is a specific dietary recommendation and not a comprehensive approach to staying healthy. C. Maintaining body weight in a healthy range is important but does not encompass all aspects of staying healthy. D. Choosing and preparing foods with little salt is a specific dietary recommendation and does not address the importance of physical activity in staying healthy.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents at the ED after receiving a chemical burn to the eye. What would be the nurses initial intervention for this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a chemical burn to the eye is to generously flush the affected eye with normal saline or water. Flushing helps to remove the chemical from the eye, preventing further damage. Antibiotic solution (choice A) is not the first intervention as the priority is to remove the chemical. Applying a patch (choice C) can trap the chemical against the eye, worsening the injury. Applying direct pressure (choice D) is not appropriate and can cause additional harm. Flushing with normal saline or water is the most effective and safest initial intervention to minimize damage from a chemical burn to the eye.
Question 3 of 9
A patient requests the nurse’s help to the bedside commode and becomes frustrated when unable to void in front of the nurse. How should the nurse interpret the patient’s inability to void?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The patient can be anxious, making it difficult for abdominal and perineal muscles to relax enough to void. Rationale: Anxiety can lead to tension in the abdominal and perineal muscles, inhibiting the ability to relax and urinate. The sympathetic nervous system response to anxiety can cause urinary retention. So, the patient's frustration in voiding in front of the nurse may be due to anxiety hindering muscle relaxation. Summary of other choices: B: The patient not recognizing physiological signals is less likely as the patient requested assistance to void, indicating awareness of the need to urinate. C: The patient being lonely and seeking attention is not relevant to the inability to void in front of the nurse. D: Inadequate fluid intake may contribute to decreased urine output but is not directly related to the inability to void in front of the nurse.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who has had diarrheafor the past week. Which additional assessment finding will the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased skin turgor. Diarrhea leads to fluid loss and dehydration, causing a decrease in skin turgor. Assessing skin turgor by gently pinching the skin on the patient's forearm is important to determine hydration status. A: Distended abdomen is more indicative of possible bowel obstruction or fluid accumulation, not specifically related to diarrhea. C: Increased energy levels are unlikely as diarrhea typically causes fatigue and weakness due to electrolyte imbalance. D: Elevated blood pressure is not a typical finding with diarrhea unless there are other underlying medical conditions.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient who presented to the ED with priapism. The student nurse is aware that this condition is classified as a urologic emergency because of the potential for what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Permanent vascular damage. Priapism is a prolonged erection that can lead to ischemia and damage to the penile tissue due to impaired blood flow, potentially resulting in permanent vascular damage. Urinary tract infection (A) is unrelated to priapism. Chronic pain (B) may occur but is not the primary concern. Future erectile dysfunction (D) can result from priapism but is not as immediate or severe as permanent vascular damage. Therefore, C is the most critical consequence to address in priapism.
Question 6 of 9
What should the nurse recognize as evidence that the patient is recovering from preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Increased urine output indicates improved kidney function, a key indicator of recovery from preeclampsia. Step 2: Adequate urine output helps regulate blood pressure and reduce swelling. Step 3: Consistent urine output >100 mL/hour signifies the kidneys are functioning properly. Step 4: Therefore, C is the correct answer as it directly reflects recovery progress from preeclampsia. Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with kidney function or recovery from preeclampsia.
Question 7 of 9
An oncology patient has just returned from the postanesthesia care unit after an open hemicolectomy. This patients plan of nursing care should prioritize which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because assessing the patient's wound for dehiscence every 4 hours is crucial post hemicolectomy to monitor for any signs of wound complications, such as infection or tissue breakdown. This allows for early detection and intervention, promoting optimal wound healing and preventing potential complications. Choice A is incorrect as compartment syndrome is not a common complication after a hemicolectomy, and assessing for it hourly would be excessive and unnecessary. Choice B is incorrect as assessing fine motor skills is not a priority in the immediate postoperative period following a hemicolectomy. Choice D is incorrect as maintaining the patient's head of bed at 45 degrees or more is important for preventing respiratory complications, but it is not the top priority compared to wound assessment for dehiscence in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with a hip fracture is having difficulty defecating into a bedpan while lying in bed. Which action by the nurse will assist the patient in having a successful bowel movement?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: Option D is correct because raising the head of the bed promotes a more natural position for defecation, allowing gravity to assist. This position helps align the rectum and anal canal, making it easier for the patient to have a bowel movement. Administering laxatives (Option C) may help, but adjusting the bed position is a non-invasive and more immediate intervention. Withholding pain medication (Option B) could lead to unnecessary discomfort for the patient. Administering a barium enema (Option A) is not indicated for addressing difficulty with defecation.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with Huntington disease has just been admitted to a long-term care facility. The charge nurse is creating a care plan for this patient. Nutritional management for a patient with Huntington disease should be informed by what principle?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - The patient will benefit from a low-protein diet. Patients with Huntington disease often experience difficulty swallowing and may have involuntary movements, leading to weight loss. A low-protein diet can help manage these symptoms and reduce the risk of aspiration pneumonia. This diet can also help control the chorea movements associated with the disease. Choice A is incorrect as patients with Huntington disease often have reduced appetite due to swallowing difficulties. Choice B is incorrect as enzyme supplements are not typically indicated in the management of Huntington disease. Choice C is incorrect as a clear liquid diet is not suitable for meeting the nutritional needs of a patient with Huntington disease, who may already be at risk for malnutrition.