ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
The patient is an 80-year-old male who is visiting the clinic today for a routine physical examination. The patient’s skin turgor is fair, but the patient reports fatigue and weakness. The skin is warm and dry, pulse rate is 116 beats/min, and urinary sodium level is slightly elevated. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drink more water to prevent further dehydration. Given the patient's fair skin turgor, fatigue, weakness, warm and dry skin, elevated pulse rate, and slightly elevated urinary sodium level, these are signs of dehydration. Increasing water intake would help improve the patient's hydration status. Other choices are incorrect because B (calorie-dense fluids) does not address the dehydration issue, C (milk and dairy products) does not directly address the symptoms presented, and D (grapefruit juice) is not essential for hydration in this case.
Question 2 of 9
Rh incompatibility can occur if the patient is Rh-negative and the
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. If fetal blood enters the mother's circulation during pregnancy or childbirth, the mother's immune system can produce antibodies against Rh-positive red blood cells, leading to potential harm to future pregnancies. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Rh incompatibility does not occur when the fetus is Rh-negative, the father is Rh-positive, or both the father and fetus are Rh-negative.
Question 3 of 9
Examination of a newborn in the birth room reveals bilateral cataracts. Which disease process in the maternal history would likely cause this abnormality?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rubella. Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to congenital rubella syndrome, which includes bilateral cataracts as a characteristic feature. Rubella virus can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) can also cause congenital cataracts, but rubella is more commonly associated with this abnormality. Syphilis can cause other congenital abnormalities but not bilateral cataracts. HIV does not typically lead to bilateral cataracts in newborns.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is admitting a 52-year-old father of four into hospice care. The patient has a diagnosis of Parkinsons disease, which is progressing rapidly. The patient has made clear his preference to receive care at home. What interventions should the nurse prioritize in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Supporting the patients and family's values and choices. In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize respecting the patient's preference to receive care at home and involving the family in decision-making. This approach promotes patient autonomy, dignity, and quality of life. Choice A is incorrect as aggressively fighting the disease process may not align with the patient's wishes for comfort-focused care in hospice. Choice B is incorrect because moving the patient to a long-term care facility goes against the patient's preference to receive care at home. Choice C is not the priority as including the children in planning care is important but not as crucial as respecting the patient's wishes directly.
Question 5 of 9
The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology patient discharged 3 days ago after completing treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurses assessment should include examination for the signs and symptoms of what complication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). In this scenario, the oncology patient has completed treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. TLS is a potential complication post-treatment due to the rapid breakdown of cancer cells, leading to release of intracellular contents like potassium, phosphorus, and uric acid into the bloodstream. This can result in electrolyte imbalances, renal failure, and cardiac arrhythmias. The nurse should assess for signs such as hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and elevated uric acid levels. Monitoring renal function and fluid status is crucial. Summary of other choices: B: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Not typically associated with post-treatment complications in oncology patients. C: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is planning discharge education for a patient who underwent a cervical diskectomy. What strategies would the nurse assess that would aid in planning discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Care of the cervical collar Rationale: 1. Care of the cervical collar is essential post-cervical diskectomy to ensure proper immobilization and support. 2. Proper care prevents complications and promotes healing. 3. It is a crucial aspect of discharge education to prevent injury and promote recovery. Summary of other choices: B: Technique for performing neck ROM exercises - Important for rehabilitation but not directly related to discharge education post-cervical diskectomy. C: Home assessment of ABGs - Irrelevant to post-cervical diskectomy discharge education. D: Techniques for restoring nerve function - Important for recovery but not a primary focus of discharge education.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse in a long-term care setting that is fundedby Medicare and Medicaid is completing standardized protocols for assessment and care planning for reimbursement. Which task is the nurse completing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A minimum data set. In a long-term care setting funded by Medicare and Medicaid, completing standardized protocols for assessment and care planning for reimbursement involves using a minimum data set, which is a standardized instrument for assessing residents' health status. This set of data elements is necessary for comprehensive assessment and care planning to ensure appropriate reimbursement. The other choices (B, C, D) do not specifically address the standardized protocols required for reimbursement in this setting. An admission assessment and acuity level would be part of the process, but not the primary task being completed in this scenario. A focused assessment on a specific body system or an intake assessment form and auditing phase are not synonymous with the standardized protocols needed for reimbursement in a Medicare/Medicaid-funded long-term care facility.
Question 8 of 9
A woman is considering breast reduction mammoplasty. When weighing the potential risks and benefits of this surgical procedure, the nurse should confirm that the patient is aware of what potential consequence?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased nipple sensation. During breast reduction mammoplasty, nerves responsible for nipple sensation may be disrupted, leading to decreased sensation in the nipple area. This is an important consequence to consider as it can impact the patient's satisfaction and quality of life post-surgery. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Chronic breast pain is a potential risk of surgery but not a consequence directly related to nipple sensation. B: Unclear mammography results may occur due to breast tissue changes from surgery, but it is not a direct consequence of decreased nipple sensation. C: Increased risk of breast cancer is not a common consequence of breast reduction mammoplasty and is not directly related to nipple sensation.
Question 9 of 9
A 57-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining that when he has an erection his penis curves and becomes painful. The patients diagnosis is identified as severe Peyronies disease. The nurse should be aware of what likely treatment modality?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Surgery. Surgery is the most effective treatment modality for severe Peyronie's disease as it can correct the penile curvature and alleviate pain. Physical therapy (A) may not be effective in severe cases. PDE-5 inhibitors (B) are used for erectile dysfunction but do not treat the underlying Peyronie's disease. Intracapsular hydrocortisone injections (C) may be used for less severe cases, but in severe cases, surgery is recommended for optimal outcomes.