The patient is admitted to the unit with the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. The patient is started on intravenous (IV) fluids and IV mannitol. What action by the nurse is best?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient's lungs. In rhabdomyolysis, muscle breakdown releases myoglobin which can cause kidney damage. Mannitol is given to prevent kidney damage by promoting diuresis. However, mannitol can also cause fluid overload and pulmonary edema. Therefore, assessing the patient's lungs is crucial to monitor for signs of fluid overload and prevent complications. A: Assessing the patient's hearing is not directly related to the management of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration. C: Decreasing IV fluids after administering a diuretic like mannitol can lead to inadequate fluid resuscitation and worsening kidney injury. D: Giving extra doses before radiological contrast agents is not necessary in the context of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient's lungs. In rhabdomyolysis, muscle breakdown releases myoglobin which can cause kidney damage. Mannitol is given to prevent kidney damage by promoting diuresis. However, mannitol can also cause fluid overload and pulmonary edema. Therefore, assessing the patient's lungs is crucial to monitor for signs of fluid overload and prevent complications. A: Assessing the patient's hearing is not directly related to the management of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration. C: Decreasing IV fluids after administering a diuretic like mannitol can lead to inadequate fluid resuscitation and worsening kidney injury. D: Giving extra doses before radiological contrast agents is not necessary in the context of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation. The patient's arterial blood gas results indicate metabolic acidosis (low pH, low bicarbonate) with respiratory compensation (low PCO). In this scenario, the patient is likely experiencing respiratory fatigue due to tachypnea from metabolic acidosis. Intubation and mechanical ventilation are needed to support the patient's respiratory effort and correct the acid-base imbalance. Administering morphine (choice A) can further depress the respiratory drive. Administering intravenous sodium bicarbonate (choice C) can temporarily correct the pH but does not address the underlying respiratory distress. Canceling dialysis (choice D) is not indicated as it does not address the acute respiratory compromise.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. CRRT removes solutes and water slowly to avoid hemodynamic instability. 2. Slow removal better tolerates fluid and electrolyte shifts in critically ill patients. 3. Unlike intermittent hemodialysis, CRRT provides continuous, gentle therapy. 4. Choice A is incorrect as both CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis use a hemofilter. 5. Choice B is incorrect as CRRT does not provide faster solute and water removal. 6. Choice C is incorrect as CRRT allows for diffusion to occur, albeit at a slower rate. Summary: Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) removes solutes and water slowly to prevent hemodynamic instability, making it a gentler and more continuous process compared to intermittent hemodialysis. The other choices are incorrect as CRRT does use a hemofilter, does not provide faster removal, and still allows for diffusion to occur.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because renin activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade. Renin is released by the kidneys in response to low blood pressure or low sodium levels. It acts on angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme. Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction, leading to increased blood pressure, and stimulates aldosterone release, promoting sodium and water retention. Choice B is incorrect because renin does not suppress angiotensin production; it actually initiates the process. Choice C is incorrect because renin's action leads to increased sodium reabsorption by stimulating aldosterone release. Choice D is incorrect because renin does not inhibit aldosterone release; it promotes it as part of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) leads to excess water retention, diluting sodium levels in the blood. Step 2: Fluid restriction is the mainstay of treatment to prevent further dilution of sodium. Step 3: Administering 3% normal saline (choice A) can worsen the condition by further increasing sodium levels. Step 4: Exogenous vasopressin (choice B) would exacerbate the problem by increasing water retention. Step 5: Low sodium diet (choice D) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the immediate priority.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: deficiency of corticosteroids. Acute adrenal crisis is caused by a sudden and severe deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone, which are essential corticosteroids produced by the adrenal glands. Without these hormones, the body cannot regulate blood pressure, electrolyte balance, and respond to stress adequately. Acute renal failure (choice A) does not directly lead to adrenal crisis. High doses of corticosteroids (choice C) can suppress the adrenal glands but do not cause acute adrenal crisis. Overdose of testosterone (choice D) does not impact the production of cortisol and aldosterone, thus not causing acute adrenal crisis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): Elevated T and T3/T4 levels are indicative of primary hypothyroidism, such as myxedema. In this case, the patient presents with classic symptoms of hypothyroidism, including altered mental status, hypothermia, and heart failure. Elevated T3/T4 levels confirm the diagnosis. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone is associated with adrenal disorders, not hypothyroidism. B: Elevated cortisol levels suggest Cushing's syndrome, a condition of excess cortisol production, not hypothyroidism. D: Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone is seen in primary hypothyroidism, but in myxedema, the issue is not with TSH but with T3/T4 levels.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient with acute pancreatitis receiving TPN is at risk for hyperglycemia due to the high glucose content in TPN. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent complications. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: A: The 18-year-old male post-surgery for a fractured femur does not have a direct correlation to blood glucose control assessment. B: The 29-year-old female undergoing evaluation for pheochromocytoma is not directly related to blood glucose control assessment. D: The 62-year-old morbidly obese female post-hysterectomy for ovarian cancer does not specifically require immediate blood glucose control assessment.