ATI RN
clinical skills exam questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The patient is admitted to the unit with the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. The patient is started on intravenous (IV) fluids and IV mannitol. What action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient's lungs. In rhabdomyolysis, muscle breakdown releases myoglobin which can cause kidney damage. Mannitol is given to prevent kidney damage by promoting diuresis. However, mannitol can also cause fluid overload and pulmonary edema. Therefore, assessing the patient's lungs is crucial to monitor for signs of fluid overload and prevent complications. A: Assessing the patient's hearing is not directly related to the management of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration. C: Decreasing IV fluids after administering a diuretic like mannitol can lead to inadequate fluid resuscitation and worsening kidney injury. D: Giving extra doses before radiological contrast agents is not necessary in the context of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration.
Question 2 of 9
The patient is admitted to the unit with the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. The patient is started on intravenous (IV) fluids and IV mannitol. What action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient's lungs. In rhabdomyolysis, muscle breakdown releases myoglobin which can cause kidney damage. Mannitol is given to prevent kidney damage by promoting diuresis. However, mannitol can also cause fluid overload and pulmonary edema. Therefore, assessing the patient's lungs is crucial to monitor for signs of fluid overload and prevent complications. A: Assessing the patient's hearing is not directly related to the management of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration. C: Decreasing IV fluids after administering a diuretic like mannitol can lead to inadequate fluid resuscitation and worsening kidney injury. D: Giving extra doses before radiological contrast agents is not necessary in the context of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is admitted to the critical care unit with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. Following aggressive fluid resuscitation and intravenous (IV) insulin administration, the blood glucose begins to normalize. In addition to glucose monitoring, which of the following electrolytes requires close monitoring?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium. During treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis, as blood glucose levels decrease, potassium levels can quickly drop due to insulin therapy driving potassium into cells. Monitoring potassium levels closely is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Choice A: Calcium - Calcium levels are not typically affected by diabetic ketoacidosis treatment and do not require immediate monitoring in this context. Choice B: Chloride - Chloride levels are usually not significantly impacted by diabetic ketoacidosis treatment and do not need close monitoring in this case. Choice D: Sodium - While sodium levels can be affected by dehydration in diabetic ketoacidosis, they are not as critical to monitor as potassium levels during treatment.
Question 4 of 9
The patient has a temporary percutaneous catheter in place for treatment of acute kidney injury. The catheter has been in place for 5 days. The nurse should
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: evaluate the patient for signs and symptoms of infection. After 5 days, infection risk increases. Signs of infection include fever, redness, swelling, and tenderness at the catheter site. Monitoring for these signs is crucial to prevent complications. A: Routine dialysis catheter change is not indicated after 5 days. C: Teaching long-term use is incorrect as temporary catheters are not meant for extended use. D: Using lumens for fluid administration can increase infection risk and is not recommended.
Question 5 of 9
The patient is complaining of severe flank pain when he tries to urinate. His urinalysis shows sediment and crystals along with a few bacteria. Using this information along with the clinical picture, the nurse realizes that the patient’s condition is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: intrarenal. The presence of sediment, crystals, and bacteria in the urinalysis indicates an issue within the kidneys themselves. The flank pain suggests renal involvement. Prerenal would involve issues before the kidneys, such as inadequate blood flow. Postrenal would involve issues after the kidneys, such as urinary tract obstruction. Not renal related is incorrect as the symptoms and urinalysis findings clearly point to a renal issue.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury? A patient who
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient was recently discharged after a prolonged course of aminoglycoside therapy, which is a known risk factor for acute kidney injury due to its nephrotoxic effects. Choice A is incorrect because although aminoglycosides can cause kidney injury, the duration of therapy is shorter in this case. Choice B is incorrect because controlled hypertension is not a significant risk factor for acute kidney injury. Choice D is incorrect because fluid overload from heart failure may lead to other complications but is not directly associated with acute kidney injury.
Question 7 of 9
Noninvasive diagnostic procedures used to determine kidney function include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Kidney, ureter, bladder (KUB) x-ray. KUB x-ray is a noninvasive diagnostic procedure that provides information about the size, shape, and position of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder. It can help detect abnormalities such as kidney stones or structural issues. Rationale: 1. KUB x-ray is noninvasive, meaning it does not require any incisions or insertion of instruments into the body. 2. It is commonly used as an initial screening tool to assess kidney function. 3. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) is also noninvasive but primarily used for imaging the kidneys and not the entire urinary system. 4. MRI (Choice C) and IVP (Choice D) are more invasive procedures that involve injecting contrast agents and may not be routinely used for initial kidney function assessment. In summary, the KUB x-ray is the correct choice as it is a noninvasive procedure specifically designed to evaluate kidney
Question 8 of 9
A patient with pancreatic cancer has been admitted to the critical care unit with clinical signs consistent with syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone. The nurse anticipates that clinical management of this condition will include
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) leads to excess water retention, diluting sodium levels in the blood. Step 2: Fluid restriction is the mainstay of treatment to prevent further dilution of sodium. Step 3: Administering 3% normal saline (choice A) can worsen the condition by further increasing sodium levels. Step 4: Exogenous vasopressin (choice B) would exacerbate the problem by increasing water retention. Step 5: Low sodium diet (choice D) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the immediate priority.
Question 9 of 9
Acute adrenal crisis is caused by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: deficiency of corticosteroids. Acute adrenal crisis is caused by a sudden and severe deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone, which are essential corticosteroids produced by the adrenal glands. Without these hormones, the body cannot regulate blood pressure, electrolyte balance, and respond to stress adequately. Acute renal failure (choice A) does not directly lead to adrenal crisis. High doses of corticosteroids (choice C) can suppress the adrenal glands but do not cause acute adrenal crisis. Overdose of testosterone (choice D) does not impact the production of cortisol and aldosterone, thus not causing acute adrenal crisis.