ATI RN
clinical skills exam questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The patient is admitted to the unit with the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. The patient is started on intravenous (IV) fluids and IV mannitol. What action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess the patient's lungs. In rhabdomyolysis, muscle breakdown releases myoglobin which can cause kidney damage. Mannitol is given to prevent kidney damage by promoting diuresis. However, mannitol can also cause fluid overload and pulmonary edema. Therefore, assessing the patient's lungs is crucial to monitor for signs of fluid overload and prevent complications. A: Assessing the patient's hearing is not directly related to the management of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration. C: Decreasing IV fluids after administering a diuretic like mannitol can lead to inadequate fluid resuscitation and worsening kidney injury. D: Giving extra doses before radiological contrast agents is not necessary in the context of rhabdomyolysis and mannitol administration.
Question 2 of 9
Conditions that produce acute kidney injury by directly acting on functioning kidney tissue are classified as intrarenal. The most common intrarenal condition is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is the most common intrarenal condition causing acute kidney injury. ATN is characterized by damage to the renal tubules due to ischemia or nephrotoxic substances. Prolonged ischemia (choice A) and exposure to nephrotoxic substances (choice B) can lead to ATN. Hypotension for several hours (choice D) can result in ischemic injury, which may lead to ATN but is not the direct cause. Therefore, choice C is correct as it directly relates to the primary intrarenal condition of ATN.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of head trauma. The nurse notes that the patient’s urine output has increased tremendously over the past 18 hours. The nurse suspects that the patient may be developing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A patient with head trauma may develop diabetes insipidus due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This results in excessive urine output and thirst. Other options are incorrect because: B: Diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with high blood sugar and ketones, not increased urine output. C: Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is characterized by extreme hyperglycemia, not increased urine output. D: Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone results in decreased urine output due to excess ADH.
Question 4 of 9
The patient is complaining of severe flank pain when he tries to urinate. His urinalysis shows sediment and crystals along with a few bacteria. Using this information along with the clinical picture, the nurse realizes that the patient’s condition is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: intrarenal. The presence of sediment, crystals, and bacteria in the urinalysis indicates an issue within the kidneys themselves. The flank pain suggests renal involvement. Prerenal would involve issues before the kidneys, such as inadequate blood flow. Postrenal would involve issues after the kidneys, such as urinary tract obstruction. Not renal related is incorrect as the symptoms and urinalysis findings clearly point to a renal issue.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent pituitary surgery 12 hours ago. The nurse will give priority to monitoring the patient carefully for which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypovolemic shock. After pituitary surgery, patients are at risk for hypovolemic shock due to potential intraoperative blood loss and fluid shifts. Monitoring for signs of shock, such as hypotension and tachycardia, is crucial for early intervention. A: Congestive heart failure is less likely immediately post-surgery. C: Infection is a concern but not the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period. D: Volume overload is not a common immediate complication of pituitary surgery.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse has been assigned the following patients. Which patients require assessment of blood glucose control as a nursing priority? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient with acute pancreatitis receiving TPN is at risk for hyperglycemia due to the high glucose content in TPN. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent complications. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: A: The 18-year-old male post-surgery for a fractured femur does not have a direct correlation to blood glucose control assessment. B: The 29-year-old female undergoing evaluation for pheochromocytoma is not directly related to blood glucose control assessment. D: The 62-year-old morbidly obese female post-hysterectomy for ovarian cancer does not specifically require immediate blood glucose control assessment.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with pancreatic cancer has been admitted to the critical care unit with clinical signs consistent with syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone. The nurse anticipates that clinical management of this condition will include
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) leads to excess water retention, diluting sodium levels in the blood. Step 2: Fluid restriction is the mainstay of treatment to prevent further dilution of sodium. Step 3: Administering 3% normal saline (choice A) can worsen the condition by further increasing sodium levels. Step 4: Exogenous vasopressin (choice B) would exacerbate the problem by increasing water retention. Step 5: Low sodium diet (choice D) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the immediate priority.
Question 8 of 9
A college student was admitted to the emergency department after being found unconscious by a roommate. The roommate informs emergency medical personnel that the student has diabetes and has been experiencing flulike symptoms, including vomiting, since yesterday. The patient had been up all night studying for exams. The patient used the last diabetes testing supplies 3 days ago and has not had time to go to the pharmacy to refill prescription supplies. Based upon the history, which laboratory findings would be anticipated in this client? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose: 524 mg/dL. The patient likely has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) due to missed insulin doses, stress, and illness leading to high blood glucose levels. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis. A low blood glucose level (Choice A) is not consistent with DKA. HCO3- of 10 mEq/L (Choice C) indicates metabolic acidosis, but it's not specific to DKA. A PaCO2 of 37 mm Hg (Choice D) is within the normal range and not directly related to DKA.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is a high-priority nursing diagnosis for both diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid volume deficient. Both diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome can lead to severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Addressing fluid volume deficiency is crucial to stabilize the patient's condition. Choice A is not the priority as the main concern is the fluid imbalance, not activity intolerance. Hyperthermia (choice C) may be present but is not the primary concern compared to fluid volume deficit. Impaired nutrition (choice D) is not the immediate priority in these emergency situations. In summary, maintaining fluid balance is essential to manage both conditions effectively.