ATI RN
Pharmacology Assessment 2 ATI Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
The patient is admitted to the hospital in chronic renal failure and is on several medications. What best describes the nurse's assessment of this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic renal failure impairs kidney excretion, critical for drugs cleared renally-like metformin-raising toxicity risk if doses aren't adjusted, a targeted concern. Liver compensation aids metabolism, not excretion, so effectiveness isn't assured. Toxicity from all drugs assumes universal renal clearance, too broad. Decreased effectiveness ignores accumulation risks. Assessing for renal-excreted drugs' toxicity aligns with kidney function's role, ensuring safety by checking specific drug profiles.
Question 2 of 5
Which statement best explains drugs like methylphenidate help a patient with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Methylphenidate boosts dopamine in prefrontal cortex, enhancing focus/attention in ADHD-per neuroscience-not blocking PNS, reducing levels, or deactivating areas. Activation explains efficacy, per mechanism.
Question 3 of 5
A 71-year-old man who has chronic back pain after falling from a first-floor apartment 25 years ago is managed with a morphine pump for his chronic pain. He also had a long history of chronic diarrhea that preceded his accident. The pump has been in place for 22 years. Which of the following effects will still likely be maintained by the device at this time?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Long-term morphine via pump sustains certain effects. Constipation persists-tolerance doesn't fully develop to GI μ-receptor effects, unlike analgesia , euphoria , or sedation (E). Pupil dilation is incorrect; morphine causes miosis. After 22 years, constipation remains a chronic issue, reflecting opioid pharmacology.
Question 4 of 5
A 57-year-old man with a history of intermittent angina normally takes sublingual nitroglycerin when attacks occur. He states that he does not take this medication because it makes him feel 'funny... itch uncontrollably... and have pain radiating to his toes.' These symptoms have never been witnessed by his family members who are with him all the time. What is the best course of action for the treating physician to take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Unusual nitroglycerin reactions (itching, toe pain) unwitnessed by family suggest noncompliance or psychogenic issues. Encourage use and explore reasons . Psychiatric or behavioral consults are premature. Switching or antipsychotics (E) ignores clarification. This approach ensures proper angina management.
Question 5 of 5
A 26-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of seasonal allergies. She has done well without medications for some time but now has worsening of her symptoms. She is given a prescription for fexofenadine. Which of the following adverse effects must be considered in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fexofenadine for allergies may cause headache , a frequent side effect of this non-sedating antihistamine. Flank pain , otitis , infection , and tinnitus (E) are rare. Headache monitoring ensures safe symptom relief.