ATI RN
Basic Care Needs of Patients Questions
Question 1 of 5
The patient has presented to the ambulatory surgery center to have a colonoscopy. The patient is scheduled to receive moderate sedation (conscious sedation) during the procedure. How will the nurse interpret this information?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The procedure requires a depressed level of consciousness. Moderate sedation, also known as conscious sedation, involves administering medications to induce a state of decreased awareness and responsiveness while maintaining the patient's ability to independently maintain a patent airway and respond to verbal commands. This level of sedation allows the patient to be minimally responsive but still able to breathe independently. Incorrect answers: A: Loss of sensation in an area of the body is typically associated with local anesthesia, not moderate sedation. C: The term "ambulatory surgery center" already indicates that the procedure will be performed on an outpatient basis, so this is redundant. D: While the patient may be asked to lie still during the procedure, being immobile is not a defining characteristic of moderate sedation.
Question 2 of 5
An elderly patient is found unconscious and unresponsive. His heart rate is 30 beats per minute, blood pressure is 70/40 mmHg, and his skin is pale and cool. Which intervention should be performed first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Establish transcutaneous pacing. This intervention is crucial to immediately address the bradycardia and maintain cardiac output in the elderly patient with symptomatic bradycardia and hypotension. Transcutaneous pacing provides rapid external electrical stimulation to increase the heart rate and improve perfusion. Administering atropine, dopamine infusion, or a fluid bolus of normal saline may not be effective in this scenario as the patient's heart rate is dangerously low, and transcutaneous pacing is the most appropriate intervention to address the underlying cause of the hemodynamic instability.
Question 3 of 5
You are on scene at a motor vehicle accident, and your 20-year-old patient is entrapped. He is unconscious, unresponsive, and has a palpable carotid pulse that is weak and thready. His breathing is slow and shallow at four times a minute with equal chest wall expansion. There are no obvious deformity injuries or hemorrhage noted. Fire department on-scene has stabilized the vehicle and provided you and your partner a relatively safe environment to manage the entrapped patient. However, access is limited to the seated patient, and extrication is expected to take another twenty minutes. After having your partner maintain cervical spine stabilization, which of the following would be the best choice for securing the patient's airway?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Intubate the patient using the blind orotracheal intubation technique to maintain in-line mobilization of the spine, then assist ventilation. Rationale: 1. Blind orotracheal intubation maintains cervical spine immobilization, crucial in trauma cases. 2. Intubation ensures a secure airway and adequate ventilation for the unconscious patient. 3. Assisting ventilation is vital due to the patient's slow and shallow breathing. 4. Nasal airway (A) may not secure the airway effectively in this case. 5. Nasotracheal intubation (B) may not be feasible given limited access and time constraints. 6. King LTD (D) is not the best option when direct laryngoscopy is possible.
Question 4 of 5
You are monitoring the cardiac rhythm of your 60-year-old female patient with shortness of breath when you note the presence of a possible first-degree atrioventricular block in lead II on the EKG. Which of the following electrocardiogram abnormalities makes you think there is a first-degree AV block present?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A P-R interval greater than five small boxes (0.20 seconds) wide on the electrocardiogram tracing. In first-degree AV block, there is a delay in the conduction of the electrical impulse from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in a prolonged P-R interval. This delay causes the P-R interval to be longer than usual, typically greater than 0.20 seconds. This is indicative of the conduction abnormality seen in first-degree AV block. Incorrect Choices: A: There are more than one P wave for each QRS complex - This describes a condition known as atrial fibrillation where multiple P waves are present without a consistent relationship to the QRS complexes. C: The P-R intervals become progressively longer until a QRS complex is dropped altogether - This describes a Mobitz type II second-degree AV block where there is a sudden drop of a QRS complex without a prior lengthening of the P-R interval.
Question 5 of 5
Your adult patient is showing signs and symptoms of being severely hyperkalemic. Medical control recommends the administration of a high-dose nebulized albuterol treatment as well as calcium chloride. Why is high-dose albuterol being recommended for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: To help lower dangerous potassium levels. Albuterol is a beta-2 agonist that stimulates potassium uptake by cells, reducing serum potassium levels. Nebulized albuterol is effective in treating hyperkalemia by shifting potassium into cells, lowering serum levels. Choices A and B are incorrect as albuterol does not directly impact ventilatory status or metabolic acidosis. Choice C is incorrect as albuterol does not increase available calcium at the cellular level.