ATI RN
Basic Care Needs of Patients Questions
Question 1 of 5
The patient has presented to the ambulatory surgery center to have a colonoscopy. The patient is scheduled to receive moderate sedation (conscious sedation) during the procedure. How will the nurse interpret this information?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct interpretation of moderate sedation is that it requires a depressed level of consciousness. During moderate sedation, the patient is in a state where they can respond to verbal commands and tactile stimulation, but their level of consciousness is decreased. This allows the patient to be comfortable and cooperative during the procedure. Choice A is incorrect because moderate sedation does not result in loss of sensation in a specific area of the body. Choice C is incorrect because the fact that the procedure is performed on an outpatient basis is not directly related to the type of sedation used. Choice D is incorrect as moderate sedation does not necessarily require the patient to be immobile; they may still be able to move and reposition themselves to some extent.
Question 2 of 5
An elderly patient is found unconscious and unresponsive. His heart rate is 30 beats per minute, blood pressure is 70/40 mmHg, and his skin is pale and cool. Which intervention should be performed first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Establish transcutaneous pacing. This intervention is vital to address the patient's symptomatic bradycardia and hemodynamic instability. Transcutaneous pacing will quickly increase the heart rate and improve perfusion. Atropine may be used if pacing is not immediately available. Administering dopamine or a fluid bolus are not the first-line interventions in this scenario. Dopamine would take time to titrate and may not be as effective as pacing in rapidly stabilizing the patient. Providing a fluid bolus may worsen the situation by increasing the intravascular volume without addressing the underlying bradycardia.
Question 3 of 5
You are on scene at a motor vehicle accident, and your 20-year-old patient is entrapped. He is unconscious, unresponsive, and has a palpable carotid pulse that is weak and thready. His breathing is slow and shallow at four times a minute with equal chest wall expansion. There are no obvious deformity injuries or hemorrhage noted. Fire department on-scene has stabilized the vehicle and provided you and your partner a relatively safe environment to manage the entrapped patient. However, access is limited to the seated patient, and extrication is expected to take another twenty minutes. After having your partner maintain cervical spine stabilization, which of the following would be the best choice for securing the patient's airway?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Intubate the patient using the blind orotracheal intubation technique to maintain in-line mobilization of the spine, then assist ventilation. In this scenario, the patient is entrapped with limited access and expected extrication time of 20 minutes. Given the patient's unconsciousness, unresponsiveness, weak carotid pulse, and slow, shallow breathing, securing the airway is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Intubating the patient using the blind orotracheal technique allows for maintaining in-line mobilization of the spine, reducing the risk of further spinal injury during the extrication process. This approach provides a more definitive airway management compared to nasal airway insertion or bag-valve mask ventilation. Nasotracheal intubation (choice B) may not be feasible due to limited access and potential for further injury. Using a King LTD (choice D) is not recommended in this situation as it does not provide the same
Question 4 of 5
You are monitoring the cardiac rhythm of your 60-year-old female patient with shortness of breath when you note the presence of a possible first-degree atrioventricular block in lead II on the EKG. Which of the following electrocardiogram abnormalities makes you think there is a first-degree AV block present?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A P-R interval greater than five small boxes (0.20 seconds) wide on the electrocardiogram tracing. In first-degree AV block, there is a delay in conduction from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in a prolonged P-R interval on the EKG. This delay is represented by a P-R interval greater than 0.20 seconds. This finding is characteristic of first-degree AV block. Now, let's analyze why the other choices are incorrect: A: There are more than one P wave for each QRS complex - This describes a condition called atrial fibrillation, where multiple P waves are present but not associated with QRS complexes. C: The P-R intervals become progressively longer until a QRS complex is dropped altogether - This describes a Mobitz Type II second-degree AV block, where there is a sudden block of conduction without a progressive increase in P-R intervals. D: The P waves are present but
Question 5 of 5
Your adult patient is showing signs and symptoms of being severely hyperkalemic. Medical control recommends the administration of a high-dose nebulized albuterol treatment as well as calcium chloride. Why is high-dose albuterol being recommended for this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: To help lower dangerous potassium levels. High-dose nebulized albuterol is recommended for hyperkalemic patients because it activates beta-2 adrenergic receptors, leading to an intracellular shift of potassium, thereby decreasing serum potassium levels. Albuterol does not directly address ventilatory status (choice A), metabolic acidosis (choice B), or increase available calcium at the cellular level (choice C). It is essential to focus on treating the underlying cause of hyperkalemia, which is the dangerously high potassium levels in this scenario.