ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 2 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
The patient has been receiving amitriptyline (Elavil) for 2 weeks. He tells the nurse he doesn't think this medicine is working, as he is still depressed. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amitriptyline, a TCA, needs 4-6 weeks for full antidepressant effect-serotonin/norepinephrine buildup, per pharmacology. ‘Looking better' dismisses feelings. Switching meds is premature-2 weeks is early. Months overstates delay. Weeks to effect educates, setting realistic hope.
Question 2 of 9
The number of people with hypertension in the United States is estimated to be
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most recent data indicates that approximately 45% of adults in the United States have hypertension. With an estimated total adult population of around 230 million in the U.S., this would mean that roughly 50 million people have hypertension.
Question 3 of 9
A 74-year-old professional golfer has chest pain that occurs toward the end of his golfing games. He says the pain usually goes away after one or two sublingual nitroglycerin tablets and rest. What type of angina is he experiencing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The 74-year-old professional golfer is likely experiencing Prinzmetal™s angina, also known as variant angina. This type of angina is characterized by episodes of chest pain that occur at rest or during minimal physical exertion. It is caused by a spasm in the coronary arteries, leading to a temporary reduction or cessation of blood flow to the heart muscle. The chest pain associated with Prinzmetal™s angina can be severe and is often relieved by sublingual nitroglycerin, as described by the golfer. Additionally, the fact that the pain occurs towards the end of his golfing games suggests that it may be triggered by stress or exertion, common triggers for coronary artery spasm in Prinzmetal's angina.
Question 4 of 9
A 30-year-old male patient is brought to the ER with the following symptoms attributed to a drug overdose: HR and BP, mydriasis, behavioral excitation, aggressiveness, paranoia, and hallucinations. Of the following drugs, which one is most likely to be responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amphetamine overdose causes sympathomimetic toxicity: elevated heart rate (HR) and blood pressure (BP) from catecholamine release, mydriasis via alpha-adrenergic stimulation, and CNS excitation—aggressiveness, paranoia, and hallucinations—due to dopamine and norepinephrine excess. Ethanol overdose typically depresses CNS, causing sedation, not excitation, despite possible tachycardia. Fentanyl, an opioid, leads to respiratory depression and miosis, opposite to these symptoms. Flunitrazepam, a benzodiazepine, sedates and lowers BP. Marijuana might cause paranoia but not this full sympathomimetic profile. Amphetamine's stimulant properties directly explain the cardiovascular, pupillary, and psychiatric symptoms, making it the most likely culprit in this acute presentation.
Question 5 of 9
When administering the opioid Morphine to a patient, it is given in doses of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct dosing regimen for Morphine typically ranges from 2-5 mg every 3-4 hours as needed for pain. This dosing schedule allows for effective management of pain while monitoring for potential side effects and adjusting the dosage according to the patient's response. Options B, C, and D have dosing regimens that are not within the typical range for Morphine administration and could lead to inappropriate dosing and potential harm to the patient.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is the systemic treatment of choice for female hirsutism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hirsutism involves excess androgen-driven hair growth. Tamoxifen, an estrogen modulator, treats breast cancer, not hirsutism. Ethinylestradiol reduces androgens via SHBG increase, but alone isn't optimal. Norethisterone, a progestin, may worsen hirsutism. Finasteride blocks 5-alpha-reductase, reducing DHT, but cyproterone, an anti-androgen, directly inhibits androgen receptors and gonadotropin release, the systemic choice for hirsutism (e.g., in PCOS). Its potency targets the root cause, offering effective hair reduction.
Question 7 of 9
The patient has been receiving amitriptyline (Elavil) for 2 weeks. He tells the nurse he doesn't think this medicine is working, as he is still depressed. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amitriptyline, a TCA, needs 4-6 weeks for full antidepressant effect-serotonin/norepinephrine buildup, per pharmacology. ‘Looking better' dismisses feelings. Switching meds is premature-2 weeks is early. Months overstates delay. Weeks to effect educates, setting realistic hope.
Question 8 of 9
The patient asks the nurse why she needs to continue using table salt because her prescribed lithium (Eskalith) is a salt. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lithium's renal clearance depends on sodium levels; low sodium causes lithium retention, risking toxicity (e.g., tremors, confusion). 'You must use table salt or your kidneys will retain lithium' explains this, ensuring safe levels. Choice A confuses with sea salt. Choice C risks toxicity by reacting late. Choice D downplays sodium's role. B educates accurately, making it the best response.
Question 9 of 9
What is the administration route of Ondansetron?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ondansetron is typically administered orally, commonly in the form of tablets, orally disintegrating tablets, or liquid solution. The medication is absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract when taken orally, making it an effective route of administration for managing nausea and vomiting. SubQ (subcutaneous), sublingual, and buccal routes are not typical routes of administration for ondansetron.