The patient had a fracture. At 3 weeks to 6 months there is clinical union, and this is the first stage of healing that is sufficient to prevent movement of the fracture site when the bones are gently stressed. How is this stage of fracture healing documented?

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Question 1 of 5

The patient had a fracture. At 3 weeks to 6 months there is clinical union, and this is the first stage of healing that is sufficient to prevent movement of the fracture site when the bones are gently stressed. How is this stage of fracture healing documented?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer to the question is C) Consolidation. Consolidation refers to the first stage of healing in a fracture where there is clinical union between the bone fragments, providing enough stability to prevent movement when the bones are gently stressed. This stage typically occurs between 3 weeks to 6 months after the initial injury. A) Ossification refers to the process of bone formation, which is part of the overall healing process but not specifically indicative of this stage of fracture healing. B) Remodeling is the process by which bone continues to adapt and reshape itself in response to mechanical stresses over time, occurring after the initial healing stages. D) Callus formation is the early stage of fracture healing where a soft callus is formed to stabilize the fracture site, preceding consolidation. In an educational context, understanding the stages of fracture healing is crucial for healthcare professionals involved in the management of fractures. Recognizing the specific terminology associated with each stage helps in accurate assessment, treatment planning, and monitoring of patients with fractures. This knowledge is essential for physicians, nurses, physical therapists, and other healthcare providers involved in orthopedic care.

Question 2 of 5

Which joint surgery is used to arthroscopically remove degenerative tissue in joints?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of joint surgery, the correct answer is C) Debridement. Debridement involves the removal of degenerative tissue within a joint through arthroscopic surgery. This procedure aims to improve joint function and reduce pain by eliminating damaged tissue. Option A) Osteotomy is a surgical procedure that involves cutting and reshaping bones to correct alignment issues, not specifically for removing degenerative tissue. Option B) Arthrodesis is a surgical fusion of a joint to provide stability, not for tissue removal. Option D) Synovectomy is the removal of the synovial lining of a joint, not specifically for degenerative tissue removal. Understanding the different types of joint surgeries and their specific purposes is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those specializing in orthopedics or neurology. Knowing the correct procedure for a given situation ensures proper patient care and successful outcomes. This knowledge is essential for medical students, residents, and practicing clinicians to make informed decisions in patient management.

Question 3 of 5

A 24-year-old patient with a 12-year history of Becker muscular dystrophy is hospitalized with heart failure. What is an appropriate nursing intervention for this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Reposition frequently to avoid skin and respiratory complications. In a patient with Becker muscular dystrophy, muscle weakness and wasting are prominent features that can lead to immobility and complications like pressure ulcers and respiratory issues. Repositioning the patient frequently helps prevent skin breakdown and respiratory complications associated with prolonged immobility. Option A) Feed and bathe the patient to avoid exhausting the muscle is incorrect because these activities do not address the specific risks associated with Becker muscular dystrophy, and they may not necessarily prevent complications related to immobility. Option C) Provide hand weights for the patient to exercise the upper extremities is incorrect as it could exacerbate muscle weakness and fatigue in a patient with muscular dystrophy, potentially leading to further complications. Option D) Use orthopedic braces to promote ambulation and prevent muscle wasting is incorrect because in Becker muscular dystrophy, the use of orthopedic braces may not be appropriate due to the progressive nature of the disease and the risk of further muscle deterioration. In an educational context, understanding the specific care needs of patients with neuromuscular disorders like Becker muscular dystrophy is crucial for nurses to provide safe and effective care. By repositioning the patient frequently, nurses can help prevent complications associated with immobility, thereby improving the patient's overall quality of life and reducing the risk of secondary health issues.

Question 4 of 5

Which description is most characteristic of osteoarthritis (OA) when compared to rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is option A) "Not systemic or symmetric." Osteoarthritis (OA) is characterized by being non-systemic, meaning it does not affect the entire body like rheumatoid arthritis (RA) does. OA also typically affects joints asymmetrically, in contrast to RA which tends to be symmetric in joint involvement. Option B) is incorrect because being Rheumatoid Factor (RF) positive is a characteristic feature of rheumatoid arthritis, not osteoarthritis. Option C) is also incorrect as although OA can occur in both men and women, it is not necessarily more common in women. Option D) is incorrect because morning joint stiffness lasting one to several hours is a characteristic feature of rheumatoid arthritis, not osteoarthritis. In an educational context, understanding the differences between osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis is crucial for healthcare professionals, particularly those in fields like rheumatology and primary care. Recognizing these distinctions can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of these conditions, ultimately leading to better patient outcomes.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with gout is treated with drug therapy to prevent future attacks. The nurse teaches the patient that what is most important for the patient to do?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Have periodic determination of serum uric acid levels. This is the most important action for a patient with gout undergoing drug therapy to prevent future attacks. Monitoring serum uric acid levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of the treatment and adjusting medications accordingly. By regularly checking these levels, healthcare providers can ensure that the patient's uric acid stays within the target range, reducing the risk of gout attacks. Option A) Avoid all foods high in purine, such as organ meats, is incorrect because while dietary modifications can help manage gout, it is not the most crucial aspect of treatment when compared to monitoring uric acid levels. Option C) Increase the dosage of medication with the onset of an acute attack is incorrect because adjusting medication dosage during an acute attack is not the standard approach to gout management. Preventive measures and long-term management are key in reducing the frequency and severity of attacks. Option D) Perform active range of motion (ROM) of all joints that have been affected by gout is incorrect because although exercise and mobility are important for managing gout symptoms, it is not the most critical action compared to monitoring serum uric acid levels for preventive care. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind the correct answer helps students grasp the importance of ongoing monitoring in chronic conditions like gout. By emphasizing the significance of regular testing and clinical follow-up, healthcare providers can optimize patient outcomes and prevent complications associated with gout.

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