ATI RN
Gastrointestinal NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The patient asks why the serologic test of HBV DNA quantitation is being done. What is the best rationale for the nurse to explain the test to the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because HBV DNA quantitation measures the amount of HBV genetic material in the blood, reflecting viral replication. This helps monitor the effectiveness of therapy in chronic HBV patients. Choice A is incorrect as the test does not specifically indicate ongoing infection. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to co-infection with HDV, which is not the purpose of HBV DNA quantitation. Choice C is incorrect as the test does not differentiate between previous infection and ongoing viral replication, which is crucial in managing chronic HBV.
Question 2 of 5
During discharge instructions for a patient following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, what should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Report any bile-colored or purulent drainage from the incisions. This is important because it could indicate infection or bile leak, which are complications that need immediate medical attention. A is incorrect because incision areas should be kept clean and dry, but typically for 48 hours, not a week. B is incorrect as shoulder pain is a common referred pain after laparoscopic cholecystectomy and not necessarily an immediate concern. D is incorrect because while some nausea and vomiting can be expected, it should not be considered normal for days postoperatively.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient who complains, "I don't see why I can't have a CT scan instead of the expensive MRI!" Which response is most appropriate for the nurse to make?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because MRI provides better contrast between normal and pathologic tissue compared to CT scans. This allows for more accurate diagnosis and treatment planning. Choice B is incorrect because MRI images are typically more complex and require specialized analysis. Choice C is incorrect because both CT and MRI images can be transmitted digitally. Choice D is incorrect because CT scans actually expose patients to less radiation compared to MRI.
Question 4 of 5
Which of these ingredients in saliva is responsible for activating salivary amylase?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: phosphate ions. Phosphate ions present in saliva help activate salivary amylase by providing the necessary environment for the enzyme to function optimally. Salivary amylase works best at a slightly alkaline pH, which is facilitated by the presence of phosphate ions. Mucus (choice A) primarily helps with lubrication and binding of food particles but does not activate enzymes. Chloride ions (choice C) are not directly involved in activating salivary amylase. Urea (choice D) is a waste product and not related to enzyme activation in saliva. In summary, the correct answer is B because phosphate ions create the optimal pH environment for salivary amylase activity, while the other choices are not directly involved in enzyme activation.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed digoxin. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching about the medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement indicates a need for further teaching because stopping digoxin abruptly can be dangerous. Digoxin should not be discontinued without consulting a healthcare provider. A: Monitoring pulse rate is important as digoxin can affect heart rate. B: Consistency in timing helps maintain consistent drug levels. D: Monitoring weight is crucial as digoxin can cause fluid retention. Therefore, choice C is incorrect as it suggests a potentially harmful action.