ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The patient asks the nurse why she needs to continue using table salt because her prescribed lithium (Eskalith) is a salt. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lithium competes with sodium-adequate salt and hydration (1-1.5 L water) prevent toxicity by aiding excretion, per pharmacokinetics. Sea salt isn't less needed-sodium's the key. Retention isn't direct-hydration matters more. Increasing salt for toxicity is reactive, not preventive. Water trumps salt, clarifying use.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with extremely high blood pressure (BP) is in the emergency department. The physician will order therapy with nitroglycerin to manage the patient™s BP. Which form of nitroglycerin is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a patient with extremely high blood pressure requiring immediate treatment in the emergency department, the most appropriate form of nitroglycerin is the intravenous (IV) infusion. IV nitroglycerin allows for rapid onset of action, precise control of the dosage, and continuous monitoring of blood pressure to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. In this critical situation, the sublingual spray, transdermal patch, and oral capsule forms would not provide the rapid and precise control needed to manage the patient's high blood pressure effectively. IV nitroglycerin is the preferred route of administration for patients with hypertensive emergencies.
Question 3 of 5
The patient has a potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. The nurse is administering glucose and insulin. The patient's wife says, 'He doesn't have diabetes, why is he getting insulin?' What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (potassium 5.9 mEq/L) is treated emergently with glucose and insulin, which drive potassium into cells, temporarily lowering serum levels . Insulin facilitates this shift by enhancing cellular uptake, paired with glucose to prevent hypoglycemia—accurate and clear for the wife. Choice B misstates that potassium is excreted via blood sugar; it's redistributed, not eliminated. Choice C compares insulin to Kayexalate (which binds potassium in the gut), but safety isn't the primary rationale. Choice D incorrectly suggests renal excretion, which isn't insulin's role (diuretics or dialysis do that). Choice A explains the mechanism correctly, addressing the wife's confusion with scientific clarity.
Question 4 of 5
A 42-year-old woman has widely disseminated colon cancer. Her main symptom is pain from a spinal crush fracture, incompletely suppressed by oral morphine. She is also troubled by constipation, nausea and occasional vomiting. Which of the following is true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metastatic colon cancer with spinal pain needs palliation. Fentanyl patches cause nausea, like morphine, due to opioid effects, so that's false. Cisplatin, for other cancers, doesn't prolong survival in advanced colon cancer (FOLFOX does). Radiotherapy to the primary isn't mainstay for metastases; palliation is. Biopsy of the vertebra is unnecessary with known cancer. Intercostal nerve block targets chest pain, not spinal, but localized nerve blocks (e.g., epidural) are true options for refractory pain, making this the best fit per key.
Question 5 of 5
A female client who has a history of seizures went to a healthcare facility to ask the nurse regarding the use of birth control pills while on phenytoin therapy. The nurse correctly states to the client that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phenytoin induces liver enzymes that increase the metabolism of oral contraceptives, reducing their effectiveness. This increases the risk of unintended pregnancy. Pregnancy is not prohibited, but effective contraception is essential. Discontinuing phenytoin is not recommended without medical advice. Therefore, the nurse should inform the client about the decreased effectiveness of birth control pills.