ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The patient asks Nurse Vera, when could you hear the fetal heart of my baby? Which of the following should be the BEST answer of Nurse Vera?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fifth month. Nurse Vera should explain that the fetal heart can typically be heard using a Doppler ultrasound device around the fifth month of pregnancy. This is because the baby's heart is developed enough to produce audible sounds by this time. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in the ninth month, the baby is ready for delivery, in the third month the heart is still developing, and in the first month the heart is just beginning to form and is not yet audible.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is conducting an admission assessment for a newly admitted patient. What aspect of cultural competence should the nurse prioritize during the assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Asking the patient about their cultural background and preferences shows respect for their individuality and acknowledges the importance of cultural competence in providing person-centered care. 2. It allows the nurse to gain valuable insights into the patient's beliefs, values, and practices, enabling them to deliver culturally appropriate care. 3. By prioritizing this aspect, the nurse can establish rapport, build trust, and enhance communication with the patient, leading to better outcomes. 4. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they either involve assumptions, avoidance, or disregard for the patient's cultural background, which can lead to misunderstandings, discomfort, and ineffective care.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents with palpitations, dizziness, and syncope. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ventricular tachycardia. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ventricular tachycardia. Ventricular tachycardia is a serious arrhythmia that can lead to palpitations, dizziness, and syncope due to the rapid and abnormal heart rhythm originating in the ventricles. This arrhythmia can be life-threatening if not promptly treated. A: Stable angina is characterized by chest discomfort or pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually during physical exertion or stress. It does not typically present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. B: Unstable angina is a more severe form of angina where symptoms occur even at rest. While it can lead to serious complications like heart attack, it does not commonly present with palpitations, dizziness, or syncope. C: Atrial fibrillation is a common arrhythmia originating in the atria, leading to an irregular and often rapid heartbeat. While it can cause palpitations and dizziness,
Question 4 of 9
Patient Ximena sought referral to an abort ion clinic from the nurse. She reasons out that her pregnancy a burden to her work and daily routines. What should be the BEST RESPONSE of the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A because it addresses the patient's concerns about potential discrimination. This shows empathy and understanding towards the patient's emotional well-being. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the patient's reasons for seeking an abortion. Choice B imposes moral and legal judgments, which can be insensitive. Choice C is not relevant to the patient's stated reason. Choice D imposes religious beliefs, which may not align with the patient's own beliefs.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with a history of congestive heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which electrolyte imbalance is the patient at risk for developing with furosemide therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works in the ascending loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption. Step 2: Inhibition of sodium reabsorption leads to increased water and electrolyte excretion, including potassium. Step 3: Increased potassium excretion can lead to hypokalemia, which is a common side effect of loop diuretics like furosemide. Step 4: Hypokalemia can be dangerous, especially in patients with congestive heart failure, as it can worsen cardiac function and lead to arrhythmias. Step 5: Therefore, patients with a history of congestive heart failure prescribed furosemide are at risk for developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT of collaboration in a health care settings?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because interprofessional collaboration and multidisciplinary collaboration are not interchangeable terms. Interprofessional collaboration involves professionals from different disciplines working together to provide comprehensive care, while multidisciplinary collaboration involves professionals from various disciplines working alongside each other but not necessarily working together in a coordinated manner. This distinction is crucial in healthcare settings to ensure effective teamwork and patient-centered care. A: Trust and respect are core values of a collaborative organization - This statement is correct because trust and respect are essential for effective collaboration in healthcare settings. B: A shared vision is essential for collaboration in any health care operations - This statement is correct as a shared vision helps align team members towards common goals. C: Successful conflict resolution can help collaborative teams overcome differences - This statement is correct as resolving conflicts constructively can strengthen team dynamics and improve collaboration.
Question 7 of 9
You should check the patient for suspect disturbed thought processes related to depressed metabolism and altered cardiovascular and respiratory status. What is the rationale for orienting the patient to time, place, date, and events?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provides reality orientation to patient. Orienting the patient to time, place, date, and events helps them stay connected to reality and improves their awareness of their surroundings. This is crucial in assessing their cognitive functioning and ensuring they are grounded in the present moment. By providing reality orientation, healthcare providers can better understand the patient's current mental state and address any potential confusion or disorientation. This approach aids in establishing a therapeutic environment and enhances the patient's overall well-being. Choices A, C, and D do not capture the essence of reality orientation and its significance in maintaining the patient's mental clarity and connection to the present moment.
Question 8 of 9
During the active phase of labor, a woman's cervical dilation is progressing slowly despite regular contractions. What maternal condition should the nurse assess for that may contribute to abnormal labor progression?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: One potential maternal condition that may contribute to abnormal labor progression with slow cervical dilation despite regular contractions is pelvic outlet obstruction. This can occur if the maternal pelvis is too small, misshapen, or has an obstruction such as a fibroid tumor. The inadequate space in the pelvis can prevent the fetus from descending properly and can result in a prolonged or difficult labor. If suspected, interventions such as a cesarean delivery may be necessary to prevent complications for both the mother and baby. It is essential for the nurse to assess for signs of pelvic outlet obstruction and work with the healthcare team to address any issues promptly to ensure a safe delivery.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with a suspected autoimmune disorder exhibits antibodies directed against self-antigens, leading to tissue damage and inflammation. Which of the following mechanisms is primarily responsible for the development of autoimmune diseases?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Loss of self-tolerance. This is because autoimmune diseases result from a breakdown in the immune system's ability to distinguish between self and non-self antigens, leading to the production of antibodies against self-antigens. When self-tolerance is lost, immune cells mistakenly target the body's own tissues, causing tissue damage and inflammation. Choice B (Failure of innate immunity) is incorrect because autoimmune diseases are primarily driven by adaptive immunity rather than innate immunity. Choice C (Defective T cell activation) is incorrect as T cells play a critical role in the immune response to self-antigens in autoimmune diseases. Choice D (Impaired phagocytosis) is incorrect as phagocytosis is a mechanism primarily involved in the removal of pathogens, not in the development of autoimmune diseases.