ATI RN
Pharmacology Assessment 1 ATI Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
The patient and his wife receive the same medication for hypertension. The patient's wife asks the nurse why she is receiving a higher amount of the medication. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Individual variation-metabolism, weight, genetics-dictates dose differences, a pharmacokinetic truth explaining her higher amount. Female metabolism isn't universally higher. Hormones affect response, but not broadly dose. Body fat impacts distribution, not directly dose here. Uniqueness covers all factors, reassuring and accurate.
Question 2 of 5
A 39-year-old man with chronic allergic rhinitis and nasal congestion takes an over-the-counter nasal spray containing oxymetazoline. Over the next few days, he has significant improvement in his symptoms. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of action of this agent?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Oxymetazoline treats nasal congestion in allergic rhinitis by acting as an α-adrenergic agonist. Option , increased nasal blood flow, is incorrect-vasoconstriction reduces flow. Option , increased arterial pressure, doesn't directly relieve congestion. Option , receptor stimulation on nasal vasculature, is correct-oxymetazoline stimulates α-receptors, causing vasoconstriction, shrinking swollen mucosa, and improving airflow. Option , transmembrane conductance change, is unrelated to its action. Option (E), understimulation, contradicts its agonist role. This vasoconstrictive effect rapidly alleviates congestion, explaining the symptom improvement. Unlike antihistamines or steroids, oxymetazoline targets vascular tone, not inflammation or histamine, making it ideal for quick relief in rhinitis. Prolonged use risks rebound congestion, but the question focuses on initial efficacy, where receptor-mediated vasoconstriction is key.
Question 3 of 5
A 34-year-old man with allergic rhinitis presents to his primary care physician for treatment. He is prescribed diphenhydramine and develops dry eyes and mouth within 2 days. His symptoms of rhinitis are approximately 75% better. He calls his physician asking what he should do. The most appropriate management for this patient is which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
You have been monitoring a 62-year-old man who is a retired small business owner over the past year and have noted a slowly changing intraocular pressure bilaterally. You have started him on physostigmine to treat his open-angle glaucoma. How does physostigmine affect intraocular pressure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Physostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor, lowers IOP in glaucoma by increasing aqueous outflow . It contracts the ciliary muscle, opening the trabecular meshwork. Secretion or synthesis reduction isn't its mechanism. Raising pressure (D, E) contradicts its use. This aids drainage in open-angle glaucoma.
Question 5 of 5
A 29-year-old male patient is being treated with an antidepressant drug, and his mood is improving. However, he complains of feeling 'jittery' and agitated at times, and if he takes his medication in the afternoon he finds it difficult to get to sleep at night. He seems to have lost weight during the 6 months that he has been taking the drug. He has been warned not to take other drugs without consultation because severe reactions have occurred with opioid analgesics including meperidine. This patient is probably taking
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Paroxetine, an SSRI, treats depression by inhibiting serotonin reuptake, often improving mood. Its side effects include agitation and insomnia (especially if taken late), due to serotonin's stimulating effects, and weight loss can occur initially, unlike TCAs which cause gain. A critical clue is the warning against opioids like meperidine: SSRIs can cause serotonin syndrome when combined with MAOIs or other serotonergic drugs, though meperidine's risk is notable in polypharmacy. Alprazolam, a benzodiazepine, sedates rather than agitates. Chlorpromazine, an antipsychotic, causes sedation and weight gain. Amitriptyline, a TCA, is sedating and linked to weight gain, not loss. Trazodone promotes sleep. Paroxetine's profile—activation, insomnia, weight loss, and drug interaction risks—matches the patient's experience.