ATI RN
Microbiology An Introduction Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The patient 25 y.o. was admitted on the 1st day of the disease with complaints of double vision in the eyes, heavy breathing. The day before the patient ate homemade mushrooms. On objective examination: paleness, widened pupils, disorder of swallowing, bradycardia, constipation are marked. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Botulism. Botulism is a rare but serious illness caused by a toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. In this case, the patient's symptoms align with botulism due to the ingestion of homemade mushrooms. The symptoms of double vision, heavy breathing, paleness, widened pupils, swallowing difficulties, bradycardia, and constipation are all classic signs of botulism poisoning. The toxin affects the nervous system and can lead to paralysis. The other choices (B: Yersiniosis, C: Leptospirosis, D: Salmonellosis) do not match the patient's symptoms and history of consuming mushrooms, making them incorrect.
Question 2 of 5
A 19 year old woman suffers from primary syphilis. Doctor administered her complex therapy that includes benzylpenicillin sodium salt. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Benzylpenicillin sodium salt, also known as penicillin G, works by blocking the synthesis of peptidoglycan in the microbial cell wall. Peptidoglycan is crucial for the structural integrity of bacterial cell walls. By inhibiting its synthesis, penicillin disrupts the cell wall formation, leading to cell lysis and bacterial death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because penicillin does not target cytoplasm proteins, thiol enzymes, or RNA synthesis. Penicillin's primary mode of action is specifically related to interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis.
Question 3 of 5
Systemic amebiasis with involvment of intestines, liver, lungs was diagnosed in a 52-year-old patient. What drug should be prescribed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Metronidazole is the drug of choice for systemic amebiasis due to its high efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica. It has good tissue penetration and can treat intestinal, liver, and lung involvement. Quiniofone (A) has limited use and is not recommended for amebiasis. Enteroseptol (B) is not effective against systemic amebiasis. Tetracycline (D) is not the first-line treatment for amebiasis and has limited efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica.
Question 4 of 5
A patient has symptoms of inflammation of urogenital tracts. Examination of a vaginal smear revealed big monocellular, pear-shaped organisms with the pointed spike at the posterior end of body, big nucleus and undulating membrane. What protozoa were found in the smear?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. 1. Symptoms of urogenital inflammation match Trichomonas vaginalis infection. 2. Description matches Trichomonas vaginalis characteristics: pear-shaped, pointed spike, big nucleus, undulating membrane. 3. Trichomonas hominis and buccalis do not typically infect urogenital tracts. 4. Trypanosoma gambiense causes African trypanosomiasis, not urogenital infections.
Question 5 of 5
UN volunteers have arrived in Nigeria to assist the locals in aftermath of earthquakes. What drug should they prescribe for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Primaquine. Primaquine is used for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale. It is effective in preventing the relapse of these malaria species by eliminating the liver forms of the parasites. Chingamin (A) is not a commonly used drug for malaria prophylaxis. Pyrantel (B) is an anthelmintic drug used for treating parasitic worm infections, not malaria. Pyrimethamine (Chloridinum) (C) is primarily used in combination with sulfadoxine for treating uncomplicated malaria, not for chemoprophylaxis.