The parents of a 9-month-old infant tell the nurse that they have noticed foods such as peas and corn are not completely digested and can be seen in their infant's stools. The nurse's explanation of this is based on which of the following?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: This is normal because of the immaturity of digestive processes at this age. In infants, especially at 9 months of age, their digestive systems are still developing and maturing. This means that they may not fully digest certain fibrous foods like peas and corn, leading to them being visible in the stool. This phenomenon is considered normal in infants and typically resolves as their digestive system matures with time. Option A is incorrect because it is not necessary to completely avoid fibrous foods until the child is 4 years old. Introducing a variety of foods gradually is important for the child's overall nutrition. Option B is incorrect as avoiding all solid foods is not necessary and could potentially lead to nutritional deficiencies in the infant. Option C is incorrect because in this context, the incomplete digestion of certain foods in an infant's stool is a common occurrence due to the developmental stage of their digestive system. Educationally, understanding the normal developmental processes of infants' digestive systems is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide appropriate guidance to parents and caregivers. By explaining these normal variations, nurses can alleviate concerns and promote healthy feeding practices for infants.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When introducing solid foods to infants, it is important to introduce one food item at a time, with intervals of 4 to 7 days between each new food. This allows for the identification of any potential food allergies or intolerances. It is important to proceed gradually and monitor for any adverse reactions.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this pediatric nursing certification practice question regarding urethritis, the correct answer is D) N.gonorrhoeae is one of the most commonly identified pathogens. This statement is NOT true because N.gonorrhoeae is actually one of the less common pathogens associated with urethritis, with Chlamydia trachomatis being the most common causative organism. Option A is true because urethritis can present with meatal pruritus, which is itching around the opening of the urethra. Option B is also true as a significant percentage of males with urethritis are asymptomatic, which highlights the importance of screening in high-risk populations. Option C is vague and incomplete. Educationally, understanding the etiology and clinical presentation of urethritis is crucial for pediatric nurses. By knowing that Chlamydia trachomatis is the most common pathogen causing urethritis, nurses can prioritize appropriate testing and treatment strategies. Additionally, recognizing the potential for asymptomatic cases emphasizes the importance of comprehensive screening protocols to prevent complications and transmission in pediatric populations.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, the evaluation for primary amenorrhea is a critical aspect of assessing the reproductive health of adolescent girls. The correct answer is D) 16 years. This age is considered appropriate for evaluation as it allows for the consideration of a wider range of normal variations in the onset of menstruation. Option A) 12 years is too early for evaluation as many girls may not have reached menarche by this age, and it is within the normal range of variation. Option B) 13 years is also early for evaluation as the onset of menstruation can vary widely in adolescents. Option C) 14 years is still premature for evaluation as some girls may experience delayed menarche without any underlying pathology. It is important for pediatric nurses to understand the normal developmental variations in adolescents to avoid unnecessary interventions or anxiety for both the patient and their families. By waiting until the age of 16 for evaluation of primary amenorrhea, healthcare providers can ensure a more accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of any underlying conditions. This knowledge is crucial for providing holistic and evidence-based care to adolescent patients.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) 85%. In pediatric nursing, it is crucial to understand oxygen therapy and how to deliver the appropriate FiO2 to maintain adequate oxygenation. When using a mask to deliver oxygen, the percentage of FiO2 that can be achieved depends on the flow rate, the fit of the mask, and the patient's respiratory pattern. With a well-fitted mask and a high flow rate, it is possible to deliver up to 85% FiO2 to the patient. Option A) 35% is incorrect because this percentage is more commonly associated with oxygen delivered via nasal cannula at low flow rates. Option C) 65% is incorrect as well, as this percentage is typically achieved with an oxygen reservoir mask or a partial rebreather mask, not a regular mask. Option D) 75% is also incorrect as it falls short of the maximum percentage achievable with a mask, which is 85%. Understanding the different oxygen delivery methods and their respective FiO2 percentages is essential for pediatric nurses to provide safe and effective care to their patients. By knowing the capabilities of each delivery system, nurses can ensure that children receive the appropriate oxygen therapy based on their respiratory needs.