The parents of a 12-month-old child ask the nurse if the child can eat hot dogs as do their other children. The nurse's reply should be based on which of the following?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Hot dogs must be cut into small, irregular pieces to prevent aspiration. At 12 months, children are still developing their chewing and swallowing skills, and larger pieces of food like hot dogs can pose a choking hazard. Cutting hot dogs into small, irregular pieces reduces the risk of choking as the child learns to manage solid foods. Option A is incorrect because a 12-month-old child can digest hot dogs, but the concern lies more with the choking hazard rather than digestion. Option B is incorrect as it is not solely about safety but about the appropriate size and texture of the food. Option C is not the best choice as slicing hot dogs into sections may still be too large for a child at this age and doesn't address the irregularity needed to prevent choking. Educationally, it is important for nurses and caregivers to understand the importance of food preparation for young children to prevent choking incidents. Teaching parents about appropriate food sizes and textures can help ensure the safety of their child during meal times. It is crucial to provide this education to promote safe feeding practices and prevent potential choking emergencies.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question about potential adverse effects of Depo-provera, the correct answer is D) weight gain. Depo-provera is a hormonal contraceptive injection containing medroxyprogesterone acetate, which can lead to weight gain as a common side effect. Option A) heavy menstrual bleeding is unlikely as Depo-provera typically causes decreased menstrual bleeding or even amenorrhea. Option B) dysmenorrhea is also unlikely as Depo-provera often reduces menstrual pain. Option C) acne is not a common side effect of Depo-provera. Educationally, understanding the potential side effects of medications like Depo-provera is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those working in pediatrics. By knowing these side effects, nurses can educate patients and their families, monitor for adverse reactions, and provide appropriate care and support. It is essential to stay informed about medication effects to ensure safe and effective pediatric nursing practice.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) fraction of inspired O2 0.55. In a preterm baby recovering from RDS on mechanical ventilation, a decreasing need for supplemental oxygen indicates improved lung function and gas exchange. A fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) of 0.55 is relatively low and suggests that the baby's lungs are able to adequately oxygenate the blood on their own. This is a key indicator that the baby may be ready for extubation. Option A) frequency of respiration 35 is not the most valuable indicator for extubation readiness. While respiratory rate is important, it alone does not provide enough information about the baby's respiratory status and ability to maintain adequate oxygenation. Option C) peak expiratory end pressure 6 and D) inspiratory pressure 8 are related to ventilator settings but do not directly indicate the baby's readiness for extubation. These parameters are more about the support provided by the ventilator rather than the baby's ability to breathe independently. In the context of pediatric nursing, understanding the significance of various ventilator parameters and blood gas values is crucial for making decisions about respiratory care for preterm infants. Monitoring trends in these parameters helps nurses and healthcare providers assess the baby's progress and determine the appropriate time for interventions like weaning off mechanical ventilation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding neonatal jaundice and its potential complications is crucial for providing safe and effective care to newborns. The correct answer, option D - cardiomyopathy, is not a potential complication of neonatal jaundice. Neonatal jaundice is primarily due to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, which can lead to conditions such as kernicterus, deafness, and cerebral palsy, but not cardiomyopathy. Kernicterus is a severe neurological complication of untreated jaundice, causing brain damage. Deafness can result from bilirubin toxicity affecting the auditory nerve. Cerebral palsy may occur due to kernicterus-induced brain injury. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of recognizing potential complications of neonatal jaundice to facilitate early intervention and prevent long-term consequences. Nurses caring for newborns must be vigilant in assessing jaundice levels and monitoring for signs of complications to ensure optimal outcomes for infants.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides incorrect information about the postoperative care required for a 3-month-old, former 29-week-premature infant undergoing surgery for bilateral inguinal hernias. Infants with a history of prematurity and apnea are at increased risk for postoperative apnea, regardless of the type of anesthesia used. Therefore, close monitoring for apnea is necessary after surgery. Sending the infant home on the same day without monitoring can be dangerous. Option A is incorrect because anemia can indeed increase the risk of postoperative apnea due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Option B is correct as it highlights the need for overnight inpatient apnea monitoring, given the infant's history. Option C is also true, emphasizing the risks associated with delaying surgery in this case. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare providers to understand the unique needs and risks associated with premature infants, especially when considering surgical interventions. This case underscores the importance of tailored, evidence-based care to ensure the best outcomes for this vulnerable population.