ATI RN
ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The parent of a child newly diagnosed with lactose intolerance is being taught by the nurse. Which food items identified by the parent indicate an understanding of foods to avoid?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, option B is the correct answer. Lactose intolerance is the inability to digest lactose, a sugar found in milk and dairy products. Therefore, foods like milk, cheese, ice cream, and puddings should be avoided by someone with lactose intolerance to prevent gastrointestinal discomfort such as bloating, gas, and diarrhea. Option A includes popcorn, seeds, and nuts, which are not high in lactose and do not need to be avoided by individuals with lactose intolerance. Option C lists wheat, rye, barley, and commercially baked goods, which are sources of gluten, not lactose, making this option incorrect. Option D mentions eggs, ham, bacon, and canned meats, which are also not high in lactose and are safe for individuals with lactose intolerance to consume. Educationally, it is crucial for healthcare providers to educate patients with lactose intolerance about the specific foods they need to avoid to manage their condition effectively and prevent symptoms. This knowledge empowers patients to make informed dietary choices and maintain their health and well-being.
Question 2 of 5
Which meal should be removed for a client taking warfarin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct meal to remove for a client taking warfarin is the 'Ham and cheese sandwich.' Ham is high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin, a medication that works by decreasing the clotting ability of the blood. Vitamin K can counteract the effects of warfarin by promoting blood clotting. Choices A, B, and D do not contain high amounts of vitamin K and are therefore safer options for individuals taking warfarin.
Question 3 of 5
What is the most likely complication for a client receiving TPN who suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypoglycemia. When a client receiving TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis, it is indicative of hypoglycemia. TPN provides a high concentration of glucose, and if it is abruptly stopped or the infusion rate is reduced, it can lead to hypoglycemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the symptoms described in the scenario. Fluid volume overload typically presents with edema and hypertension, sepsis with fever and increased heart rate, and hyperglycemia with polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision.
Question 4 of 5
What is the priority nursing goal for an adolescent with anorexia nervosa?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing goal for an adolescent with anorexia nervosa is to stop weight loss or restore weight. This is crucial in addressing the immediate health risks associated with anorexia nervosa, such as malnutrition, organ damage, and potential life-threatening complications. While encouraging effective coping skills, restoring normal eating habits, and promoting a realistic self-image are important aspects of treatment, stopping weight loss or restoring weight takes precedence due to the severe physical consequences of anorexia nervosa.
Question 5 of 5
Which statement about essential nutrients should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because carbohydrates are indeed the primary source of fuel for muscles and the brain. Choice A is incorrect because while certain fats are essential, they do not help decrease triglyceride levels. Choice B is incorrect because animal sources of protein do not contain all 20 essential amino acids. Choice D is incorrect because although high-fiber foods are important for digestion and overall health, they are not a direct source of energy.