The parent of 2-week-old Sarah asks the nurse if Sarah needs fluoride supplements, because she is exclusively breast-fed. The nurse's best response is which of the following?

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Pediatric Nursing Study Guide Questions

Question 1 of 5

The parent of 2-week-old Sarah asks the nurse if Sarah needs fluoride supplements, because she is exclusively breast-fed. The nurse's best response is which of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, fluoride supplementation is a crucial topic due to its impact on dental health. The correct answer, option C, is that Sarah may need to begin taking fluoride supplements at age 6 months. This is because breast milk is low in fluoride, and after 6 months, the fluoride stores from birth start to deplete. Introducing fluoride supplements at this age helps in the development of strong teeth. Option A is incorrect because starting fluoride supplements at 2 weeks old is unnecessary and could lead to excessive fluoride intake. Option B is incorrect because relying solely on fluoridated water may not provide adequate fluoride levels for dental health. Option D is also incorrect as the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends starting fluoride supplements at 6 months for exclusively breast-fed infants. Educationally, it's important to understand the rationale behind fluoride supplementation in infants to promote optimal dental health. Nurses must provide accurate information to parents to prevent dental problems while avoiding potential risks of excessive fluoride intake at a young age. This knowledge equips healthcare professionals to support families in making informed decisions regarding their child's health.

Question 2 of 5

Primary amenorrhea generally requires evaluation if menstruation does not occur within

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Primary amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation by age 15 in the presence of normal growth and secondary sexual characteristics, or the absence of menstruation by age 13 with the absence of secondary sexual characteristics. In the context of pediatric nursing, the correct answer is C) 3 years from the onset of puberty. This is because primary amenorrhea requires evaluation if menstruation does not occur within this timeframe after the onset of puberty, which is typically around age 12. Option A) 1 year from the onset of puberty is too short of a timeframe to definitively diagnose primary amenorrhea as it may take longer for some individuals to establish regular menstrual cycles. Option B) 2 years from the onset of puberty is also premature for evaluation as it does not allow enough time for the menstrual cycle to regulate. Option D) 4 years from the onset of puberty is too long of a period to wait for evaluation as early intervention and diagnosis are crucial in addressing any underlying causes of primary amenorrhea in pediatric patients. Understanding the timeline for evaluating primary amenorrhea is essential for pediatric nurses to identify and address any potential reproductive health issues early on. By knowing when to intervene and refer patients for further evaluation, nurses can provide comprehensive care and support for adolescents experiencing menstrual irregularities.

Question 3 of 5

In mechanical ventilation, giving adequate PEEP can mainly reduce:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In mechanical ventilation, providing adequate Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) can mainly reduce barotrauma. Barotrauma occurs when there is damage to the lung tissue due to high pressures during mechanical ventilation. By applying PEEP, the alveoli remain open at the end of expiration, preventing lung collapse and reducing the need for high peak pressures, hence decreasing the risk of barotrauma. Option A) Volutrauma is excessive stretch and overdistension of the alveoli, which is more related to high tidal volumes rather than PEEP. Adequate PEEP actually helps prevent volutrauma by recruiting collapsed alveoli. Option C) Oxytrauma is damage caused by high levels of oxygen exposure over time. While PEEP may reduce the need for high FiO2 levels, it is not primarily aimed at reducing oxytrauma. Option D) Pneumonia is an infection of the lung tissue and is not directly related to the application of PEEP in mechanical ventilation. Understanding the effects of PEEP on the respiratory system in pediatric patients is crucial for nurses caring for critically ill children on mechanical ventilation. Proper application of PEEP can improve oxygenation, prevent lung injury, and optimize respiratory function in pediatric patients requiring ventilatory support.

Question 4 of 5

You are treating a 6-year-old child who survived drowning after prolonged CPR. The mother asks about the possibility of full neurological recovery. The BEST response is that it is possible if the child regains full consciousness within:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the implications of CPR and its potential outcomes is crucial. The correct answer is C) 24 hours. This timeframe is critical because if a child regains full consciousness within 24 hours post-drowning and CPR, there is a higher likelihood of achieving full neurological recovery. This is due to the brain's ability to recover and repair damage within this timeframe, minimizing long-term neurological deficits. Option A) Few hours is incorrect because the brain needs more time to recover fully from the hypoxic injury caused by drowning. Option B) 12 hours may still be within the window for potential recovery but is not as optimal as 24 hours. Option D) 48 hours is too long, and delays in regaining full consciousness beyond 24 hours can lead to more significant neurological deficits. The educational context here is to highlight the importance of early assessment and intervention in pediatric drowning cases. Nurses need to be aware of the critical timeframes for neurological recovery post-drowning to provide accurate information and support to families like the child's mother in this scenario. Understanding these nuances can guide nursing care and help set appropriate expectations for families during such critical moments.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following is the most common cause of non-cardiac neonatal arrhythmia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding neonatal arrhythmias is crucial for providing safe and effective care to newborns. In this context, the correct answer to the question, "Which of the following is the most common cause of non-cardiac neonatal arrhythmia?" is A) hypoxia. Hypoxia is the most common cause of non-cardiac neonatal arrhythmia because inadequate oxygen supply can disrupt the electrical conduction system of the heart, leading to arrhythmias. Newborns are particularly vulnerable to hypoxia due to their underdeveloped respiratory and cardiovascular systems. Option B) hyperkalemia is less likely to be the cause of neonatal arrhythmia as it is relatively uncommon in newborns and is more commonly seen in adults with renal failure or certain medications. Option C) hypoglycemia can also cause arrhythmias, but it is not as common as hypoxia in the neonatal population. Monitoring blood sugar levels is important in newborns but is not the primary cause of arrhythmias. Option D) respiratory acidosis can affect the acid-base balance in the body but is not the most common cause of neonatal arrhythmia. It is more likely to cause respiratory distress rather than arrhythmias in newborns. Educationally, understanding the common causes of neonatal arrhythmias equips pediatric nurses with the knowledge to recognize and intervene promptly in such critical situations. Early identification and appropriate management of arrhythmias can significantly impact the outcomes for neonates. This knowledge underscores the importance of vigilant monitoring and assessment in neonatal care settings.

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