ATI RN
health assessment practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The papule on the nose of a 52-year-old woman has rounded, pearly borders and a central red ulcer. She tells the nurse that it has been present for several months and is slowly growing larger. Which of the following conditions does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basal cell carcinoma. The clinical presentation of a papule with rounded, pearly borders, central red ulcer, slow growth, and location on the nose is highly indicative of basal cell carcinoma. Basal cell carcinoma commonly presents with these characteristics and is the most common type of skin cancer. It is locally invasive but rarely metastasizes. A: Acne is a common skin condition characterized by comedones, papules, and pustules, not typically presenting with the described features. C: Malignant melanoma usually presents as an asymmetric, irregularly bordered, multicolored lesion with rapid growth and potential for metastasis. D: Squamous cell carcinoma typically presents as a scaly, crusted lesion with potential for metastasis, not showing the described features.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is assessing the hearing of a 7-month-old. What would be the expected response to clapping of hands?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because at 7 months, infants typically have developed the ability to localize sounds. When clapping hands, the expected response is for the infant to turn their head towards the sound source, indicating their ability to detect and localize the sound. This behavior reflects the normal auditory development at this age. Choice B is incorrect because by 7 months, infants should show some response to noise, such as turning their head or showing some interest. Choice C is incorrect as the startle and acoustic blink reflex typically occur in response to sudden loud noises, but at 7 months, the infant should also be able to localize the source of the sound. Choice D is incorrect as stopping all movement and appearing to listen is not a typical response expected from a 7-month-old when hearing a sound. Infants at this age are more likely to actively turn towards the sound source to investigate.
Question 3 of 9
What is the first step in the management of a client with acute renal failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with acute renal failure is to administer IV fluids (Choice A). This is crucial to ensure adequate hydration and maintain renal perfusion. By administering IV fluids, you can help improve kidney function and prevent further damage. Monitoring urine output (Choice B) is important but comes after addressing the fluid balance with IV fluids. Performing a CT scan (Choice C) is not typically the initial step in managing acute renal failure as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate condition. Administering diuretics (Choice D) can worsen the condition by further reducing kidney function, so it is not the recommended first step.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is preparing to do an otoscopic examination on a 2-year-old child. Which of the following reflects correct procedure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tilt the child's head slightly toward the examiner. This position straightens the ear canal, facilitating visualization. Pulling the pinna down (A) can cause discomfort and obstruct the view. Pulling the pinna up and back (B) is incorrect for a child under 3 years old as it straightens the ear canal in adults. Having the child touch his chin to his chest (D) is unnecessary and may lead to improper examination positioning.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is at the clinic because he has recently noticed that the left side of his mouth is paralyzed. He states that he cannot raise his eyebrow or whistle. The nurse suspects that he has:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bell's palsy. Bell's palsy is characterized by sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles, resulting in drooping of the face, inability to raise the eyebrow or close the eye, and difficulty with facial expressions and functions like whistling. In this case, the patient's symptoms of left-sided facial paralysis point towards Bell's palsy as the likely diagnosis. Cushing's syndrome (A) is a hormonal disorder, Parkinson's syndrome (B) is a neurodegenerative disorder affecting movement, and a cerebrovascular accident (D) typically presents with more generalized neurological deficits rather than isolated facial paralysis.
Question 6 of 9
A patient's vision is recorded as 20/80 in each eye. The nurse recognizes that this finding indicates:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: poor vision. In the 20/80 visual acuity notation, 20 represents the test distance in feet, and 80 represents the line on the eye chart that the patient can read. Therefore, a person with 20/80 vision can only see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 80 feet. This indicates poor vision as the patient's visual acuity is significantly below normal. Summary: - Choice B (acute vision) is incorrect as 20/80 vision indicates poor vision, not exceptional sharpness. - Choice C (normal vision) is incorrect as 20/80 vision is below normal range. - Choice D (presbyopia) is incorrect as presbyopia is a condition related to aging and difficulty focusing on close objects, not specifically indicated by 20/80 vision.
Question 7 of 9
Which action is most important for a nurse caring for a client with a suspected spinal cord injury?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobilize the client. This is crucial to prevent further damage to the spinal cord. Moving a client with a suspected spinal cord injury can worsen the injury and lead to permanent damage. Immobilizing the client helps maintain spinal alignment and reduces the risk of paralysis. Providing pain relief (B) and loosening clothing (D) are important but secondary actions. Applying pressure to the chest (C) is not recommended for a suspected spinal cord injury as it can also exacerbate the injury.
Question 8 of 9
During assessment, the nurse notices that the skin of a patient of Asian descent is yellowish brown in colour. The skin on the hard and soft palate is, however, pink in colour. From this finding, the nurse could probably rule out:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jaundice. Yellowish brown skin coloration along with pink coloration of the hard and soft palate is indicative of jaundice, a condition characterized by elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin causes a yellowish discoloration of the skin but does not affect the color of the mucous membranes like the hard and soft palate. Pallor (A) refers to paleness of the skin due to decreased blood flow or anemia, not relevant in this case. Cyanosis (C) is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood, which is not consistent with the presented findings. Iron deficiency (D) may lead to pallor, but it does not cause yellowish brown skin coloration like jaundice.
Question 9 of 9
For which condition might blood be drawn to check uric acid levels?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: gout. Uric acid levels are typically checked for gout, a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints. This condition directly relates to uric acid levels in the blood. Asthma (choice A), diverticulitis (choice C), and meningitis (choice D) do not typically require checking uric acid levels. Asthma is a respiratory condition, diverticulitis is a gastrointestinal condition, and meningitis is an inflammation of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord.