ATI RN
health assessment practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The papule on the nose of a 52-year-old woman has rounded, pearly borders and a central red ulcer. She tells the nurse that it has been present for several months and is slowly growing larger. Which of the following conditions does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basal cell carcinoma. The clinical presentation of a papule with rounded, pearly borders, central red ulcer, slow growth, and location on the nose is highly indicative of basal cell carcinoma. Basal cell carcinoma commonly presents with these characteristics and is the most common type of skin cancer. It is locally invasive but rarely metastasizes. A: Acne is a common skin condition characterized by comedones, papules, and pustules, not typically presenting with the described features. C: Malignant melanoma usually presents as an asymmetric, irregularly bordered, multicolored lesion with rapid growth and potential for metastasis. D: Squamous cell carcinoma typically presents as a scaly, crusted lesion with potential for metastasis, not showing the described features.
Question 2 of 9
A patient says that she has recently noticed a lump in the front of her neck below her"Adam's apple" that seems to be getting bigger. During the assessment, the finding that reassures the nurse that this may not be a cancerous thyroid nodule is that the lump (nodule):
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: the lump is mobile and not hard. A cancerous thyroid nodule is typically fixed and hard, whereas a noncancerous nodule is more likely to be mobile and soft. This characteristic suggests it may be a benign condition such as a thyroid cyst rather than a malignant tumor. The other choices are incorrect because A: tenderness does not necessarily indicate benignity or malignancy, C: disappearance when smiling is more related to a salivary gland issue, and D: hardness and fixation are more indicative of a potentially cancerous nodule.
Question 3 of 9
During the assessment of an infant, the nurse notes that the fontanelles are depressed and sunken. Which condition does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dehydration. Depressed and sunken fontanelles in an infant indicate dehydration due to decreased fluid volume. Dehydration causes a decrease in tissue turgor, leading to the fontanelles appearing sunken. Rickets (A) is a condition characterized by weak or soft bones due to vitamin D deficiency. Mental retardation (C) is a developmental disorder, not related to fontanelle appearance. Increased intracranial pressure (D) would cause bulging fontanelles, not depressed fontanelles. Therefore, the most likely condition in this case is dehydration.
Question 4 of 9
A 52-year-old patient complains of seeing occasional"floaters or spots" in front of his eyes. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because floaters are a common and typically benign phenomenon caused by condensed vitreous fibers in the eye. A nurse should educate the patient that floaters are usually not significant and do not require immediate intervention. Option A is incorrect because counting the number of floaters is unnecessary. Option B is incorrect because presuming glaucoma without proper assessment is inappropriate. Option C is incorrect because seeing occasional floaters is a common and normal occurrence in many individuals.
Question 5 of 9
During an assessment, a patient says that she was diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma 2 years ago. There are various types of glaucoma, such as open-angle glaucoma and closed-angle glaucoma. Which of the following are characteristics of open-angle glaucoma? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It is the most common type of glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is indeed the most common type, accounting for about 90% of all glaucoma cases. In open-angle glaucoma, the drainage angle of the eye remains open, but the trabecular meshwork becomes blocked over time. This leads to increased intraocular pressure, which can damage the optic nerve and result in vision loss. A, C, and D are incorrect: A: The symptoms mentioned (sensitivity to light, nausea, halos around lights) are more commonly associated with acute angle-closure glaucoma, not open-angle glaucoma. C: Immediate treatment is not necessarily needed for open-angle glaucoma as it progresses slowly, and treatment can vary based on the severity of the condition. D: Vision loss in open-angle glaucoma typically starts with the loss of peripheral vision, not central vision.
Question 6 of 9
A 92-year-old patient has had a stroke, and the right side of his face is drooping. What else would the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dysphagia. In a stroke patient with right-sided facial drooping, dysphagia is highly likely due to the involvement of the facial nerve, leading to difficulty swallowing. Epistaxis (A) is nosebleeds, agenesis (B) is the absence of a body part, and xerostomia (D) is dry mouth, which are not directly related to facial drooping in stroke patients. Dysphagia is a common complication post-stroke due to impaired muscle control, making it the most likely concern for the nurse to suspect in this case.
Question 7 of 9
When assessing the tongue of an adult, an abnormal finding would be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a smooth, glossy dorsal surface of the tongue is abnormal in adults and may indicate glossitis or nutritional deficiencies. B is incorrect as a thin white coating is normal. Raised papillae (choice C) may indicate transient lingual papillitis but are not typically abnormal. Visible venous patterns (choice D) are normal on the ventral surface.
Question 8 of 9
During the examination of a patient in her third trimester of pregnancy, the nurse notices that the patient's thyroid gland is slightly enlarged. No enlargement had been noted previously. The nurse suspects that:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct: 1. Enlargement of the thyroid gland during pregnancy is a normal finding due to hormonal changes. 2. The thyroid gland enlarges to meet the increased demands of thyroid hormone production. 3. This condition is known as gestational thyrotoxicosis and is usually benign. 4. No further testing is needed for thyroid cancer unless other concerning symptoms are present. Summary: A: Not relevant as iodine deficiency is not typically associated with thyroid enlargement in pregnancy. B: Incorrect as early signs of goitre would involve more pronounced symptoms than just slight enlargement. D: Unnecessary as thyroid cancer is not a common concern in this scenario of a slightly enlarged thyroid in the third trimester of pregnancy.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse suspects that a patient has hyperthyroidism, and laboratory data also indicate that the patient's T and T hormone levels are elevated. Which of the following would the nurse most likely find on 4 3 examination?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A (Tachycardia) is correct: 1. Hyperthyroidism leads to increased production of thyroid hormones. 2. Thyroid hormones can increase metabolic rate and heart rate. 3. Tachycardia is a common symptom of hyperthyroidism due to increased metabolic demand. 4. Therefore, the nurse would most likely find tachycardia on examination in a patient with hyperthyroidism. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Constipation - Constipation is more commonly associated with hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. C: Rapid dyspnea - Dyspnea (shortness of breath) is not a typical symptom of hyperthyroidism. D: Atrophied, nodular thyroid - Hyperthyroidism often presents with an enlarged, not atrophied, thyroid gland due to overactivity. Nodules may be present in conditions like thyroid cancer, but not specific to hyper