ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The organization of a patients care on the palliative care unit is based on interdisciplinary collaboration. How does interdisciplinary collaboration differ from multidisciplinary practice?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Interdisciplinary collaboration involves clinicians from different backgrounds integrating their separate plans of care, ensuring a holistic approach to patient care. This fosters a comprehensive understanding of the patient's needs and individualized care. In contrast, multidisciplinary practice involves clinicians working independently without integrating their plans, potentially leading to fragmented care. Choice A is incorrect as interdisciplinary collaboration does have a team leader to coordinate and facilitate communication among team members. Choice C is incorrect because while communication and cooperation are essential in interdisciplinary collaboration, the key distinction is the integration of different perspectives and plans of care. Choice D is incorrect as interdisciplinary collaboration goes beyond just medical expertise and patient preference, involving professionals from various disciplines working together to address all aspects of patient care.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is leading a workshop on sexual health for men. The nurse should teach participants that organic causes of erectile dysfunction include what? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diabetes. Erectile dysfunction can be caused by organic factors, such as diabetes, which affects blood flow and nerve function. Diabetes can lead to damage of blood vessels and nerves, impacting the ability to achieve and maintain an erection. Testosterone deficiency (choice B) can also contribute to erectile dysfunction, but it is not an organic cause. Anxiety (choice C) and depression (choice D) are psychological factors that can lead to erectile dysfunction, not organic causes. Parkinsonism (choice E) can affect sexual function, but it is not a common organic cause of erectile dysfunction.
Question 3 of 9
The hospice nurse is caring for a patient with cancer in her home. The nurse has explained to the patient and the family that the patient is at risk for hypercalcemia and has educated them on that signs and symptoms of this health problem. What else should the nurse teach this patient and family to do to reduce the patients risk of hypercalcemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C is correct because adequate hydration helps prevent hypercalcemia by promoting the excretion of excess calcium in the urine. This reduces the risk of calcium buildup in the blood. Consuming 2 to 4 liters of fluid daily ensures proper hydration, which is crucial for patients at risk for hypercalcemia. Stool softeners (Option A) are not contraindicated and can help prevent constipation, which may be a side effect of some cancer treatments. Laxatives (Option B) should not be taken daily as they can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Restricting calcium intake (Option D) is not the primary intervention for preventing hypercalcemia; rather, maintaining adequate hydration is key.
Question 4 of 9
A patients primary infection with HIV has subsided and an equilibrium now exists between HIV levels and the patients immune response. This physiologic state is known as which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Viral set point. The viral set point refers to the stable level of HIV in the body after the initial infection. This state indicates a balance between viral replication and the immune response. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Static stage implies no change, which is not the case with HIV levels fluctuating; B) Latent stage refers to a period of inactivity, not the stable state described; D) Window period is the time between infection and detectable antibodies, not the equilibrium state described.
Question 5 of 9
An 86-year-old patient is experiencing uncontrollableleakage of urine with a strong desire to void and even leaks on the way to the toilet. Whichprioritynursing diagnosiswill the nurse include in the patient’s plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Urge urinary incontinence Rationale: 1. The patient's symptoms of strong desire to void and leakage on the way to the toilet indicate urge urinary incontinence. 2. Urge urinary incontinence is characterized by a sudden, strong need to urinate with involuntary leakage. Incorrect Choices: A: Functional urinary incontinence - This type is due to factors such as cognitive or physical impairment, not a strong urge to void. C: Impaired skin integrity - While important, this is a potential consequence of urinary incontinence, not the priority nursing diagnosis. D: Urinary retention - This would present with the inability to empty the bladder, not symptoms of frequent urge to void and leakage.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is checking orders. Which order shouldthe nurse question?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because giving a hypertonic solution enema to a patient with fluid volume excess can worsen the condition by drawing more fluid into the colon. This can lead to further fluid volume overload and electrolyte imbalances. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Normal saline enema is appropriate for constipation. C: Kayexalate enema is used to treat hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. D: Oil retention enema is indicated for constipation to soften stool.
Question 7 of 9
A patient comes to the ophthalmology clinic for an eye examination. The patient tells the nurse that he often sees floaters in his vision. How should the nurse best interpret this subjective assessment finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because floaters are commonly caused by age-related changes in the vitreous humor of the eye, such as the formation of tiny fibers or clumps. These floaters are typically harmless and not a cause for concern. Choice B is incorrect because glasses do not affect floaters in the eye. Choice C is incorrect because floaters are not a primary symptom of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because weakened ciliary muscles are not typically associated with floaters. Therefore, the most appropriate interpretation is that seeing floaters is a normal aging process of the eye.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse on a bone marrow transplant unit is caring for a patient with cancer who is preparing for HSCT. What is a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Risk for infection related to altered immunologic response. This is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient preparing for hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) because the patient's immune system will be severely compromised post-transplant, leading to a high risk of infections. It is crucial to prioritize infection prevention to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect because while fatigue is common in cancer patients, it is not the priority in this case where infection risk is higher. Choice B is incorrect as altered nutrition can be addressed after managing the risk for infection. Choice D is incorrect as body image disturbance is important but not as critical as preventing infections in this highly vulnerable patient population.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is charting on a patient’s record. Whichaction will the nurse take that is accurate legally?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Charts legibly. This is accurate legally because clear and legible documentation is crucial for accurately conveying patient information, ensuring continuity of care, and meeting legal standards. Illegible handwriting can lead to errors in patient care and legal issues. Choice B is incorrect as labeling a patient as "belligerent" without evidence can be perceived as unprofessional and potentially harmful to the patient. Choice C is incorrect as writing an entry for another nurse can lead to inaccurate documentation and legal consequences. Choice D is incorrect because using correction fluid can raise suspicion of tampering with records and compromise the integrity of the documentation.