ATI RN
foundations in microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The organisms to be identified have a nucleus surrounded by a nuclear membrane. Genetic material is concentrated predominantly in the chromosomes which consist of DNA strands and protein molecules. These cells divide mitotically. Identify these organisms:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. The presence of a nucleus with a nuclear membrane indicates eukaryotic cells. 2. Eukaryotes have genetic material in chromosomes made of DNA and proteins. 3. Mitotic division is characteristic of eukaryotic cells. 4. Therefore, the organisms described are eukaryotes. Summary: - Bacteriophages (B) are viruses that infect bacteria. - Prokaryotes (C) lack a nucleus and their genetic material is not organized into chromosomes. - Viruses (D) are not considered living organisms and do not have a nucleus or chromosomes.
Question 2 of 9
Examination of a smear from a chancre revealed mobile, long, spiral microorganisms with 8-12 regular coils. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Treponema. The characteristics described match Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis. Treponema has long, spiral shape with 8-12 regular coils. Leptospira (B) is a spirochete but has fewer coils and causes leptospirosis. Borrelia (C) is another spirochete but typically has irregular coils and causes Lyme disease. Vibrios (D) are curved rods and not spirochetes.
Question 3 of 9
The bacteria that produces a thick pseudomembrane in the throat is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is the correct answer as it is the bacteria responsible for causing diphtheria, characterized by a thick pseudomembrane in the throat. 2. Streptococcus pyogenes causes strep throat but does not produce a pseudomembrane. 3. Neisseria meningitidis causes meningitis and septicemia, not a throat pseudomembrane. 4. Bacillus cereus causes food poisoning, not throat-related symptoms.
Question 4 of 9
The mold that produces penicillin is an example of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: amensalism. Penicillin mold produces a substance that inhibits the growth of bacteria, but it does not benefit nor harm the bacteria directly. This relationship is characterized by one organism (the mold) negatively affecting another (the bacteria) without any benefit or harm to itself. In parasitism (A), one organism benefits at the expense of another. In mutualism (B), both organisms benefit from the relationship. In commensalism (C), one organism benefits while the other is unaffected. Therefore, the mold producing penicillin fits the definition of amensalism.
Question 5 of 9
A 32 year old patient complains about heartburn and dull pain in the epigastrium that appear 2-3 hours after meal. Exacerbations happen in spring and in autumn. The patient has food intolerance of eggs and fish. Objectively: stomach palpation reveals painfulness in the gastroduodenal area. Electrophasoduodenoscopy revealed a 5 mm ulcer on the anterior wall of duodenum. Urease test is positive. What is the most probable leading mechanism of disease development?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacterial infection. This is the most probable leading mechanism of disease development in this case because the patient's symptoms, such as heartburn, epigastric pain, food intolerance, and presence of a duodenal ulcer with a positive urease test, are classic signs of Helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium colonizes the stomach lining, leading to inflammation and ulcer formation. The exacerbations in spring and autumn could be due to seasonal variations in immune response. Choice B: Dietary allergy is incorrect because the symptoms and findings in the patient are more indicative of an infectious etiology rather than an allergic reaction to specific foods. Choice C: Autoantibody production is unlikely as there are no indications of an autoimmune process in this case. Choice D: Reduced prostaglandin synthesis is not the leading mechanism as the symptoms and findings are more consistent with an infectious cause rather than a deficiency in prostaglandin synthesis.
Question 6 of 9
What type of bacteria is responsible for the formation of acid in the stomach?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is responsible for stomach acid formation by producing an enzyme called urease, which converts urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide, leading to an increase in stomach pH. Staphylococcus aureus (A) does not cause stomach acid formation. Bacillus cereus (C) and Clostridium botulinum (D) are not involved in stomach acid processes.
Question 7 of 9
The organism often called “flesh-eating bacteria†is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Streptococcus pyogenes. This bacterium is commonly known as "flesh-eating bacteria" due to its ability to cause severe tissue destruction and necrotizing fasciitis. Streptococcus pyogenes produces toxins that break down skin and muscle tissues. Staphylococcus aureus (A) can cause skin infections but is not typically associated with necrotizing fasciitis. Staphylococcus epidermidis (B) is a normal skin flora and rarely causes infections. Propionibacterium acnes (D) is associated with acne and not known for causing tissue destruction. Therefore, the correct choice is Streptococcus pyogenes due to its unique ability to cause severe tissue damage and necrotizing fasciitis.
Question 8 of 9
A defined microorganism can be isolated in pure culture:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because isolating a defined microorganism in pure culture involves obtaining a single, distinct colony on solid media. This ensures that only one type of microorganism is present in the culture, preventing contamination. Liquid media can harbor multiple organisms, making it challenging to isolate a specific microorganism. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. Choice B is also incorrect as liquid nutrient media does not provide the necessary isolation required for pure culture. Choice D is incorrect because isolating from single colonies on solid media allows for the pure culture of the defined microorganism.
Question 9 of 9
A journalist's body temperature has sharply increased in the morning three weeks after his mission in India, it was accompanied with shivering and bad headache. A few hours later the temperature decreased. The attacks began to repeat in a day. He was diagnosed with tropical malaria. What stage of development of Plasmodium is infective for anopheles-female?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sporozoites. Sporozoites are the infective stage of Plasmodium for the female Anopheles mosquito. Here's the rationale: After being transmitted to a human host through a mosquito bite, the sporozoites travel to the liver where they mature and reproduce asexually as merozoites (not the infective stage for mosquitoes). The merozoites then infect red blood cells, leading to symptoms like fever, headache, and shivering. During the blood stage, some merozoites develop into male and female gametocytes, which are not infective to mosquitoes. When a mosquito bites an infected person, it ingests gametocytes, which then develop into male and female gametes and fuse to form ookinetes. Ookinetes develop into oocysts in the mosquito's gut, releasing sporozoites that migrate to the salivary glands, ready to infect a new human host when the mosquito bites