ATI RN
microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The organism that is responsible for the vast majority of cases of fungal vaginitis is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Propionibacterium acnes. This bacterium is not a fungus, but a common skin bacteria. Fungal vaginitis is typically caused by Candida albicans or other fungal species, not by bacteria like Escherichia coli, Streptococcus agalactiae, or Klebsiella oxytoca. Propionibacterium acnes is not associated with vaginal infections, making it the correct answer in this context.
Question 2 of 9
The organism that is responsible for the vast majority of cases of fungal vaginitis is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Propionibacterium acnes. This bacterium is not a fungus, but a common skin bacteria. Fungal vaginitis is typically caused by Candida albicans or other fungal species, not by bacteria like Escherichia coli, Streptococcus agalactiae, or Klebsiella oxytoca. Propionibacterium acnes is not associated with vaginal infections, making it the correct answer in this context.
Question 3 of 9
What is the function of bacterial fimbriae?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adhesion to surfaces. Bacterial fimbriae are hair-like appendages that help bacteria attach to surfaces, such as host cells or medical devices. This adhesion is crucial for colonization and infection. DNA replication (B) occurs in the cell's nucleus, not on the surface. Protein synthesis (C) happens inside the cell, not on the fimbriae. Flagella movement (D) is the function of flagella, not fimbriae.
Question 4 of 9
Name the halogen-containing antiseptic with fungicidal properties, which is used to treat dermatomycosis:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Iodine solution contains iodine, a halogen with antiseptic properties. 2. Iodine is effective against fungi, making it suitable for treating dermatomycosis. 3. Iodine solution is commonly used in dermatology for its fungicidal properties. 4. Formalin, methylene blue, and brilliant green do not contain halogens or have fungicidal properties. Summary: - Formalin is a disinfectant, not an antiseptic for dermatomycosis. - Methylene blue is an antifungal dye, not used as an antiseptic. - Brilliant green is an antiseptic, but does not contain halogens or have fungicidal properties.
Question 5 of 9
The Wasserman reaction is markedly positive (++++) in a 30-year-old man. What infectious disease is diagnosed using the Wasserman reaction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Syphilis. The Wasserman reaction is a test for syphilis, specifically for detecting antibodies against the bacterium Treponema pallidum. In a 30-year-old man with a markedly positive Wasserman reaction, it indicates an active syphilis infection. Brucellosis (Choice A) is not diagnosed using the Wasserman reaction. Poliomyelitis (Choice C) is a viral infection affecting the spinal cord, not diagnosed using the Wasserman reaction. Influenza (Choice D) is a respiratory viral infection, not associated with the Wasserman reaction.
Question 6 of 9
Micrographia, a publication illustrating insects, sponges, as well as plant cells, was published by
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Robert Hooke. Hooke published Micrographia in 1665, showcasing detailed illustrations of insects, sponges, and plant cells under the microscope. Hooke's work was groundbreaking in advancing the field of microscopy. Van Leeuwenhoek is known for discovering microorganisms but did not publish Micrographia. Janssen and Needham were not associated with Micrographia. Therefore, A is the correct answer.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with fever, headache, and neck stiffness had a cerebrospinal fluid sample showing Gram-negative diplococci. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococcus known to cause bacterial meningitis, presenting with fever, headache, and neck stiffness. It is a common cause of meningitis in young adults and teenagers. Streptococcus pneumoniae (B) is a Gram-positive bacteria and a common cause of bacterial pneumonia, not meningitis. Haemophilus influenzae (C) is a Gram-negative coccobacillus that can cause meningitis, but it is less common in adults. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative bacillus known to cause pneumonia and urinary tract infections, not meningitis.
Question 8 of 9
A fecal sample from a patient with diarrhea was cultured on Endo agar, resulting in colorless colonies. The bacteria were Gram-negative rods. What microorganism is most likely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Shigella. On Endo agar, Shigella appears as colorless colonies due to its inability to ferment lactose. Shigella is a Gram-negative rod and is a common cause of diarrhea. Salmonella (A) and Escherichia coli (C) would typically produce pink colonies on Endo agar as they can ferment lactose. Proteus (D) is not commonly associated with diarrhea and would not be expected to grow on Endo agar.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing the disease known as pneumonia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia. 2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause a type of pneumonia called tuberculosis. 3. Escherichia coli is not typically associated with pneumonia. 4. "All of the above" includes both Streptococcus pneumoniae and Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which are known to cause pneumonia. Therefore, D is the correct answer.