ATI RN
Pediatric Neurology Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The organism causing CNS infection is never seen on direct examination of CSF in
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tuberculous meningitis rarely shows organisms on CSF smear (acid-fast bacilli) due to low bacterial load, needing culture/PCR. Bacterial (B-C), fungal , and amebic meningitis often reveal organisms. TBs diagnostic challenge makes A the correct answer.
Question 2 of 5
Detection of viral DNA or RNA by polymerase chain reaction is the test of choice in the diagnosis of CNS infection caused by
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: PCR is the gold standard for West Nile virus (WNV) CNS infection, per CDC, due to rapid, specific RNA detection in CSF. Arbovirus, parechovirus, rabi, and EBV use PCR variably, but WNVs reliance makes C the correct answer.
Question 3 of 5
The MOST common presenting complaint of intramedullary spinal cord tumors is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Back pain is the most common presenting symptom of intramedullary spinal cord tumors (~70%), per studies, from local mass effect. Gait , sensory , scoliosis , and urinary issufollow. Pains prominence makes D the correct answer.
Question 4 of 5
Prevented by folic acid
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spina bifida is a neural tube defect (NTD) preventable by periconceptional folic acid, reducing incidence by 50-70%, per CDC evidence. It arisfrom failure of neural tube closure, directly linked to folate deficiency. Hydrocephalus results from CSF flow obstruction, not NTDs, and lacks evidence for folate prevention. Both A and B overstathydrocephaluss link, while Neither ignorspina bifidas established prevention. Folatrole in neurulation targets spina bifida specifically, making B the correct answer, reflecting its unique embryologic and epidemiologic profile.
Question 5 of 5
A 12-year-old female experiencacute monocular blindness of 2 days duration. Past history includuncharacterized headachfor 3 years, one episode of diplopia, and one of paresthesias of the feet, unrelated in time. Physical exam is unremarkable except reduced visual acuity. The most important diagnostic step is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: MRI is the most important step for acute monocular blindness lasting 2 days, with prior headaches, diplopia, and paresthesias. This suggests a neurologic etiology like migraine with prolonged aura, demyelination (e.g., MS), or stroke. MRIs superior soft-tissue resolution detects white matter lesions, infarcts, or inflammation, critical for differential diagnosis. CT identifihemorrhage but misssubtle pathology. EEG assessseizures, irrelevant here without convulsion. Nerve conduction and biopsy target peripheral nerves, not central vision loss. MRIs diagnostic yield, per AAN guidelines, make B the correct answer, addressing the broad symptom spectrum.