The optimal PH for most pathogenic bacteria and viruses is:

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Question 1 of 5

The optimal PH for most pathogenic bacteria and viruses is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C (7.2-7.4) because most pathogenic bacteria and viruses thrive in a neutral pH environment close to 7.0. This pH range is optimal for their growth and survival. Choice A (5.0-5.5) is too acidic for most pathogens. Choice B (8.0-9.6) is too alkaline, which is not conducive for their survival. Choice D (4.2-4.4) is also too acidic and would likely inhibit the growth of pathogenic bacteria and viruses. Thus, a pH range of 7.2-7.4 provides the most suitable conditions for their proliferation.

Question 2 of 5

Specify the most commonly used parameters for autoclaving sterilization:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it specifies the commonly used parameters for autoclaving sterilization: 1.0 atm pressure, 120º C temperature, and 15-20 minutes duration. This combination ensures effective sterilization by providing the necessary heat and pressure for killing microorganisms. Rationale: 1. Pressure of 1.0 atm: Standard atmospheric pressure commonly used in autoclaving. 2. Temperature of 120º C: Optimal temperature for sterilization without causing damage to heat-sensitive materials. 3. Duration of 15-20 minutes: Time required for heat and pressure to penetrate and kill microorganisms effectively. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Incorrect temperature and duration, too high and long, may damage materials. C: Incorrect pressure and temperature, higher pressure and temperature not commonly used. D: Incorrect temperature, too high, can damage materials, and duration is longer than necessary.

Question 3 of 5

What type of immunity is responsible for the agglutination of viruses:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Humoral immunity. Humoral immunity involves the production of antibodies by B cells that can bind to antigens on viruses, leading to their agglutination. This process prevents the spread of the virus in the body. Passive immunity (A) involves receiving pre-formed antibodies, not the production of antibodies. Cell-mediated immunity (C) involves the activation of T cells, not the direct agglutination of viruses. Non-specific immunity (D) refers to general defense mechanisms like inflammation and fever, not targeted agglutination of viruses.

Question 4 of 5

Agglutination reaction is one of the following:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reaction type GRUBER. Agglutination reaction in GRUBER involves the clumping of particles due to specific antibodies binding to antigens on the surface. This reaction is commonly used in blood typing and serology tests. A: Western blot is a technique used to detect specific proteins in a sample, not related to agglutination. B: ELISA is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay used to detect antibodies or antigens, not based on agglutination. D: Ascoli ring test is a method to detect the presence of DNA in a sample, not related to agglutination.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following infections is typical for the lower respiratory tract?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Q-fever. Q-fever is typically an infection that affects the lower respiratory tract, causing symptoms like pneumonia. Haemophilus influenzae pharyngitis (choice A) is an upper respiratory tract infection. Ozeana (choice B) and diphtherial croup (choice C) are not specific infections related to the lower respiratory tract. Q-fever stands out as the correct choice due to its association with lower respiratory tract infections.

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