ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
The older adult client has gastrointestinal bleeding. The client says to the nurse, 'I don't understand this. All I did was take ibuprofen (Advil) for my arthritis.' Which plan would be best as it relates to the nurse's education of this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ibuprofen, an NSAID, can cause gastrointestinal bleeding by irritating the stomach lining, a risk higher in older adults. Substituting acetaminophen, which lacks this effect, reduces harm while managing pain, making it the best education plan. Topical drugs may not address systemic arthritis. Physician approval is wise but less specific than substitution. Pros/cons of ibuprofen inform but don't directly mitigate risk. Acetaminophen offers a safer alternative, directly addressing the bleeding issue.
Question 2 of 5
Which explanation best indicates why barbiturates are rarely used to treat anxiety and insomnia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant pain. Physical exam reveals rebound tenderness and decreased bowel sounds. An emergent appendectomy is performed. Postsurgically, he is given an NSAID along with morphine for pain control. Which of the following NSAIDs is commonly used as an adjunct to opioids postsurgically?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Post-appendectomy pain management often combines opioids like morphine with NSAIDs for synergy. Acetaminophen is an analgesic but not a true NSAID (lacks significant anti-inflammatory action). Celecoxib , a COX-2 inhibitor, is less common acutely due to cost and milder effect. Ibuprofen is effective but less potent parenterally. Ketorolac , a potent NSAID, is widely used postsurgically-available IV/IM, it reduces inflammation and pain, complementing morphine's central action. Naproxen (E) is oral, less ideal acutely. Ketorolac's rapid onset and efficacy in reducing opioid requirements make it standard. Its short-term use minimizes GI risks, aligning with surgical protocols, distinguishing it from other options for acute postoperative pain control.
Question 4 of 5
A 52-year-old man with organic impotence is in the preoperative holding area before surgery. He is given intravenous vancomycin over 20 min and begins to develop fever, chills, and redness at the injection site. What is the most appropriate course of action for the physician to take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vancomycin's rapid infusion causes red man syndrome (fever, chills, redness) is discontinue . Anticholinesterase is irrelevant. Corticosteroids treat severe reactions, not initial step. Intubation is excessive. Slowing infusion (E) is preventive, not reactive. Stopping vancomycin halts histamine release, resolving symptoms.
Question 5 of 5
A 65-year-old man with end-stage renal disease because of diabetes recently underwent a renal transplant. He has been responding well to the transplant and his creatinine has stabilized around 2.1 mg/dL. He was placed on immunosuppressive therapy with muromonab. What is the mechanism of action of muromonab?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.