ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nursing staff has a team conference on AIDS and discusses the routes of transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HSV). The discussion reveals that an individual has no risk of exposure to HIV when that individual;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct: 1. Having intercourse with just the spouse means a monogamous relationship with a trusted partner, minimizing risk of exposure to HIV. 2. It eliminates the risk of contracting HIV from multiple sexual partners. 3. This choice adheres to safer sex practices by reducing the chances of exposure to HIV. 4. This choice also promotes trust and communication within the relationship, further reducing the risk of HIV transmission. Summary: - Choice A is correct as it promotes monogamy and reduces the risk of exposure to HIV. - Choices B, C, and D do not guarantee zero risk of HIV transmission as blood donations, HIV antibodies, and condom use can still pose risks if not used or implemented correctly.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because during the first phase of the nursing process (assessment), the nurse gathers a comprehensive database of information about the patient's health status. This step is crucial for identifying the patient's needs and developing a holistic care plan. Choice B is incorrect because identifying nursing diagnoses typically occurs in the second phase (diagnosis). Choice C is incorrect as intervening based on care priorities happens in the third phase (planning and implementation). Choice D is incorrect as determining outcomes achieved is part of the final phase (evaluation).
Question 3 of 9
Mr. Reyes has a possible skull fracture. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because observing for signs of brain injury is crucial in assessing a possible skull fracture. Signs may include altered mental status, headache, nausea, vomiting, and unequal pupil size. Choice B is incorrect as hemorrhaging from the oral cavity may not always be present in skull fractures. Choice C is incorrect as elevating the foot of the bed is not recommended for a possible skull fracture. Choice D is incorrect as decreased intracranial pressure and temperature are not typical symptoms of a skull fracture.
Question 4 of 9
A client is being returned to the room after a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which piece of equipment is most important for the nurse to keep at the client’s bedside?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Tracheostomy set Rationale: 1. Immediate airway management: After thyroidectomy, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling or bleeding. Tracheostomy set ensures immediate access to secure the airway. 2. Emergency intervention: In case of respiratory distress or airway obstruction post-surgery, a tracheostomy set allows for prompt and effective intervention. 3. Patient safety and priority: Ensuring airway patency is crucial for the client's survival and takes precedence over other equipment. Summary of other choices: A: Indwelling urinary catheter kit - Not directly related to post-thyroidectomy care. B: Cardiac monitor - Important but secondary to airway management in this situation. D: Humidifier - Not essential for immediate post-thyroidectomy care.
Question 5 of 9
A few hours before the patient was admitted at the hospital, he complained of fever, nausea and vomiting, and vague abdominal pain. The doctor examined the patient as a case of acute appendicitis and prepared for appendectomy. The nurse anticipates that this type of surgery is classified as:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: emergency. Acute appendicitis is a condition that requires immediate surgical intervention to prevent complications like rupture. In an emergency surgery, the procedure must be done urgently to treat a life-threatening condition. In this case, the patient's symptoms indicate an urgent need for surgery to remove the inflamed appendix. Choice B: urgent, implies that surgery is needed promptly, but not immediately to prevent life-threatening complications. Choice C: elective, refers to a planned, non-urgent surgery that is scheduled in advance. Choice D: required, is a vague term and doesn't specify the urgency of the surgery, hence it is not the best classification for acute appendicitis surgery.
Question 6 of 9
A client is brought to the emergency department unconscious after a fall. What is the primary source of information in this case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Client's spouse. In the case of an unconscious client, the spouse is the primary source of information about the client's medical history, medications, allergies, and recent events. This information is crucial for providing appropriate care. Medical records may not be immediately accessible. Diagnostic tests provide limited historical information. Nursing assessment relies on the client's condition, which may not provide comprehensive information.
Question 7 of 9
A client is in isolation after receiving an internal radioactive implant to treat cancer. Two hours later, the nurse discovers the implant in the bed linens. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. First, the nurse should put the implant back in place using forceps and a shield for self-protection. This is important to limit the exposure to radiation for both the client and the nurse. Second, the nurse should call for help to ensure proper handling and further assistance. Standing away from the implant (choice A) does not address the immediate need to secure the implant. Picking up the implant with long-handled forceps and placing it in a lead-lined container (choice B) should only be done by trained personnel to prevent further exposure. Leaving the room and notifying the radiation therapy department immediately (choice C) delays the immediate action needed to prevent unnecessary radiation exposure.
Question 8 of 9
A client who has been taking prednisone to treat lupus erythematosus has discontinued the medication because of lack of funds to buy the drug. When the nurse becomes aware of the situation, which assessment is most important for the nurse to make first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B being correct: 1. Blood pressure is vital in this scenario due to prednisone discontinuation. 2. Abruptly stopping prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency. 3. Adrenal insufficiency can cause hypotension, a life-threatening condition. 4. Monitoring blood pressure can help detect and manage potential complications. Summary of other choices: A: Breath sounds – Important but not the priority in this specific situation. C: Capillary refill – Useful for assessing circulation but not urgent in this context. D: Butterfly rash – A characteristic of lupus, but not a critical concern in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
A client has cancer that has me tastasized to her bones. She is complaining of increased thirst, polyuria and decreased muscle tone. Her lab values are: Na 139mEq/L, k 4 mEq/L, Cl 103 mEq/L, and Ca 8 mg/dl. What electrolyte imbalance is present?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypercalcemia. Increased thirst and polyuria are symptoms of hypercalcemia, as excess calcium can lead to dehydration and increased urine output. Decreased muscle tone is also a common symptom of hypercalcemia. The lab value of Ca 8 mg/dl confirms high levels of calcium in the blood. Incorrect choices: A: Hypocalcemia - This is incorrect as the lab value of Ca 8 mg/dl indicates normal to high levels of calcium, ruling out hypocalcemia. B: Hyperkalemia - This is incorrect as the lab value of K 4 mEq/L is within normal range, ruling out hyperkalemia. D: Hypochloremia - This is incorrect as the lab value of Cl 103 mEq/L is within normal range, ruling out hypochloremia.