ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nursing instructor teaches the student nurses about the pharmacological classification of drugs. The instructor evaluates that learning has occurred when the students make which response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pharmacological classification groups drugs by mechanism-anticoagulants influence clotting by inhibiting factors like thrombin, a precise definition. Anti-anginal and antihypertensive describe therapeutic effects, not mechanisms. Calcium channel blockers' action is mechanistic but less broad than clotting's systemic impact. Anticoagulants' specific role in coagulation reflects accurate classification understanding, key for pharmacology learning.
Question 2 of 5
The patient tells the nurse, 'I thought I was just depressed, but my doctor says I have bipolar disorder. What is that?' What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bipolar disorder features mood cycles-depression and mania (hyperactivity)-per DSM-5, distinct from unipolar depression. It's not just cyclic depression, nor ADHD-linked. Seasonal shifts are separate (SAD). Mania-depression cycles define it, clarifying diagnosis.
Question 3 of 5
A 22-year-old woman ingests an entire bottle of acetaminophen in an attempted suicide. She unexpectedly feels well for the next 24 h, at which time her boyfriend discovers what she has done and takes her to the ER. The toxic metabolite of acetaminophen exerts its deleterious effect by what mechanism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acetaminophen overdose initially presents asymptomatically, but its toxic metabolite, NAPQI, causes delayed harm. Option , depletion of endogenous antioxidants (glutathione), is correct-NAPQI, formed via CYP450 metabolism, overwhelms glutathione, leading to oxidative stress and hepatotoxicity. Option , hapten formation, occurs with some drugs but not acetaminophen's primary toxicity. Option , cytochrome C oxidase inhibition, is cyanide's mechanism, not acetaminophen's. Option , ischemia from reduced blood flow, isn't the issue-damage is metabolic. Option (E), gallbladder paralysis, is irrelevant. NAPQI's glutathione depletion disrupts detoxification, causing centrilobular necrosis, explaining the delayed presentation and justifying urgent treatment like N-acetylcysteine to replenish glutathione.
Question 4 of 5
A 33-year-old man with a history of chronic epididymoorchitis is treated with long-term tetracycline antibiotic therapy. During the 3 months of therapy, he develops discoloration of his teeth. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tetracycline causes tooth discoloration by binding to calcium in developing teeth . Drug toxicity is vague. Folate synthesis , hepatic enzymes , and osteoclasts (E) aren't involved. This chelation stains enamel, a known effect with prolonged use.
Question 5 of 5
A 5-year-old boy presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain, nausea, and three episodes of bloody emesis. His mother is concerned because she saw him playing near the open medicine cabinet and her prenatal vitamins were opened. What is the most appropriate treatment for the child's overdose?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prenatal vitamins likely caused iron overdose (bloody emesis). Deferoxamine chelates iron, preventing toxicity. Aminocaproic acid treats bleeding. Dimercaprol and Penicillamine target other metals. Succimer (E) is for lead. Deferoxamine is urgent for this child.