ATI RN
ATI Proctored Exam Pharmacology Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nursing instructor teaches student nurses about male reproductive function and the role of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). The instructor evaluates learning has occurred when the students make which statement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) from the pituitary targets Sertoli cells in the testes to drive spermatogenesis, regulating sperm production and supporting male fertility. Androgen production, mainly testosterone, falls under luteinizing hormone (LH), not FSH, though both hormones interplay in reproduction. Testosterone synthesis in Leydig cells is LH-driven, not FSH, which focuses on sperm maturation. Progesterone, minimal in males, isn't FSH-regulated, being more female-centric. FSH's role in spermatogenesis is specific, distinguishing it from hormonal regulation and highlighting its importance in reproductive physiology, ensuring students understand its targeted action over broader endocrine effects.
Question 2 of 5
The patient is receiving zolpidem (Ambien) for treatment of short-term insomnia. What is the primary safety concern of the nurse when the patient takes this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
The symptoms of gout are due to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
A 78-year-old woman with ovarian cancer and pancreatitis is hospitalized for acute treatment of a massive pulmonary embolism. She is immediately given an intravenous dose of alteplase once the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism was made. Characteristics of this agent include which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Alteplase treats pulmonary embolism by dissolving clots. Success at clot resolution is correct-it converts plasminogen to plasmin, breaking fibrin. Option , free plasminogen, is less specific than its fibrin-bound action. Option , high antigenicity, and , low specificity, are false-alteplase is fibrin-specific and recombinant. Option (E), long half-life, isn't true. Its efficacy in clot lysis is key in this acute setting.
Question 5 of 5
A 19-year-old man is brought to the emergency room after being found by the police to be disruptive in a shopping mall. He states that he is hearing voices and seeing Jesus Christ. The police apprehended him because he was acting violently. He arrives in the emergency department and is combative. His blood pressure is 190/90 mm Hg. His core body temperature is 39°C. The most likely explanation for these findings is overdose of which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hallucinations, violence, hypertension, and hyperthermia suggest phencyclidine (PCP) overdose . PCP, an NMDA antagonist, causes dissociative psychosis and sympathetic stimulation. Alcohol sedates, cocaine lacks hallucinations, marijuana doesn't cause violence, and Quaaludes (E) sedate. PCP's unique profile fits this acute, agitated presentation.