ATI RN
ATI Proctored Exam Pharmacology Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nursing instructor teaches student nurses about male reproductive function and the role of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). The instructor evaluates learning has occurred when the students make which statement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) from the pituitary targets Sertoli cells in the testes to drive spermatogenesis, regulating sperm production and supporting male fertility. Androgen production, mainly testosterone, falls under luteinizing hormone (LH), not FSH, though both hormones interplay in reproduction. Testosterone synthesis in Leydig cells is LH-driven, not FSH, which focuses on sperm maturation. Progesterone, minimal in males, isn't FSH-regulated, being more female-centric. FSH's role in spermatogenesis is specific, distinguishing it from hormonal regulation and highlighting its importance in reproductive physiology, ensuring students understand its targeted action over broader endocrine effects.
Question 2 of 5
The patient is receiving zolpidem (Ambien) for treatment of short-term insomnia. What is the primary safety concern of the nurse when the patient takes this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of the ATI Proctored Exam Pharmacology, the primary safety concern for a patient taking zolpidem (Ambien) for short-term insomnia is dizziness and daytime sedation. This is the correct answer because zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can cause central nervous system depression, leading to dizziness and sedation, especially if the patient does not allow for a full 7-8 hours of sleep before engaging in activities that require alertness. Option B, Nausea, is incorrect because nausea is not a primary safety concern associated with zolpidem use. Option C, Diarrhea, is also incorrect as it is not a common side effect or safety concern with zolpidem. Option D, Sleepwalking, while a potential side effect of zolpidem, is not the primary safety concern. Dizziness and daytime sedation pose a more significant risk to the patient's safety and well-being. In an educational context, it is crucial for nurses to understand the potential side effects and safety concerns associated with medications like zolpidem to ensure safe administration and monitoring of patients. Educating nurses on the specific risks and considerations with each medication helps them provide optimal care and prevent adverse events in patients taking these medications.
Question 3 of 5
The symptoms of gout are due to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In gout, the symptoms are primarily due to the buildup of uric acid in the blood, making option B the correct answer. Uric acid is a byproduct of purine metabolism and when levels become elevated, it can form crystals in joints, leading to inflammation, pain, and swelling characteristic of gout. Option A, an increase in the excretion of uric acid, is incorrect because in gout, there is typically a problem with either overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid, not increased excretion. Option C, cartilage loss in the joints, is incorrect as this is more commonly associated with osteoarthritis, not gout. Option D, a decrease in uric acid in the blood, is also incorrect as gout is characterized by hyperuricemia, an elevated level of uric acid in the blood. Educationally, understanding the underlying cause of gout symptoms is crucial for proper management and treatment. By recognizing that gout is primarily a result of uric acid buildup, healthcare providers can focus on strategies to lower uric acid levels and prevent further crystal formation, thereby improving patient outcomes and quality of life.
Question 4 of 5
A 78-year-old woman with ovarian cancer and pancreatitis is hospitalized for acute treatment of a massive pulmonary embolism. She is immediately given an intravenous dose of alteplase once the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism was made. Characteristics of this agent include which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Alteplase treats pulmonary embolism by dissolving clots. Success at clot resolution is correct-it converts plasminogen to plasmin, breaking fibrin. Option , free plasminogen, is less specific than its fibrin-bound action. Option , high antigenicity, and , low specificity, are false-alteplase is fibrin-specific and recombinant. Option (E), long half-life, isn't true. Its efficacy in clot lysis is key in this acute setting.
Question 5 of 5
A 19-year-old man is brought to the emergency room after being found by the police to be disruptive in a shopping mall. He states that he is hearing voices and seeing Jesus Christ. The police apprehended him because he was acting violently. He arrives in the emergency department and is combative. His blood pressure is 190/90 mm Hg. His core body temperature is 39°C. The most likely explanation for these findings is overdose of which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hallucinations, violence, hypertension, and hyperthermia suggest phencyclidine (PCP) overdose . PCP, an NMDA antagonist, causes dissociative psychosis and sympathetic stimulation. Alcohol sedates, cocaine lacks hallucinations, marijuana doesn't cause violence, and Quaaludes (E) sedate. PCP's unique profile fits this acute, agitated presentation.