The nurse would plan to use the Nipissing District Developmental Screen with a child who is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (3 years old) because the Nipissing District Developmental Screen is specifically designed for children aged 1 month to 6 years to assess their developmental milestones. It focuses on various areas of development appropriate for this age group, such as motor skills, language, social interaction, and cognitive abilities. Using this tool with a 3-year-old child allows for early identification of potential developmental delays or concerns. Incorrect choices: B (16 years old) - The Nipissing District Developmental Screen is not intended for children above 6 years old. C (8 years old with a developmental delay) - The tool is primarily for early screening, not for children already identified with developmental delays. D (Having difficulty with gross motor skills) - While this child may benefit from assessment, the Nipissing Screen is a comprehensive tool for overall development, not just specific skill deficits.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Patient's age and mobility. Age and mobility are key factors in pressure ulcer development as elderly and immobile patients are at higher risk due to decreased circulation and pressure on skin. Family medical history (B) is not directly linked to pressure ulcers. Frequency of hospital visits (C) is not a determining factor, and patient's education level (D) does not directly impact pressure ulcer risk. In summary, assessing age and mobility helps identify high-risk patients for developing pressure ulcers.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Check for dehydration. When a client has a high fever, assessing for dehydration is crucial because fever can lead to increased fluid loss through sweating and increased respiratory rate. Dehydration can exacerbate the client's condition and needs to be addressed promptly. Monitoring respiratory rate (choice A) and pulse (choice D) are important assessments but do not address the immediate need to identify dehydration. Obtaining a blood sample (choice B) may be necessary at some point but is not the initial priority in a client with a high fever. Thus, checking for dehydration should be assessed first to ensure proper management of the client's condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perform a comprehensive physical exam. This is important because it helps assess the overall health status of the client, including cardiovascular risk factors that can affect both diabetes and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose (A) is important for diabetes management but not specific to newly diagnosed hypertension. Checking for protein in the urine (C) is important for assessing kidney function in diabetes, but not the most crucial assessment for newly diagnosed hypertension. Assessing for urinary retention (D) is not directly related to managing diabetes and hypertension.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epinephrine. It is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it rapidly reverses severe allergic reactions by constricting blood vessels, relaxing airway muscles, and increasing heart rate. Diphenhydramine (B) and steroids (C) are used as adjunct therapies but do not provide immediate relief like epinephrine. Albuterol (D) is used for bronchospasm in asthma, not for anaphylaxis. In summary, epinephrine is the most effective and life-saving medication for treating anaphylaxis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Orthostatic hypotension. In a patient with congestive heart failure, there is impaired cardiac function leading to decreased cardiac output. This can result in orthostatic hypotension, where blood pressure drops upon standing. Monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is important to prevent falls and other complications. B: Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. C: Hypoglycemia may occur in patients with diabetes, but it is not a common complication of congestive heart failure. D: Severe dehydration is not directly related to congestive heart failure unless the patient has concurrent issues such as diarrhea or excessive diuresis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a client is moving towards illness and premature death, signs and symptoms typically start to manifest. These can include physical changes, abnormal lab results, or new onset of health issues. This serves as a direct indication of the client's deteriorating health status. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because stopping wellness-promoting activities (A) could simply be due to lack of motivation, starting to exercise (C) may not necessarily indicate illness progression, and verbalizing anxiety over medication costs (D) is not a direct indicator of impending illness and premature death.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient with severe injuries is brought to the emergency department, the nurse should prioritize performing a physical examination and initiating lifesaving measures while asking history questions simultaneously. This approach allows for immediate assessment and intervention to address any life-threatening conditions. Gathering history information while performing the examination ensures that critical details are not missed and helps in making timely decisions. Choosing option A could delay lifesaving interventions, while option C is not a priority during the initial assessment of a critically injured patient. Option D is incorrect as it prioritizes lifesaving measures over obtaining important history information during the initial assessment.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: increased fibrinogen. Heparin therapy works by inhibiting clot formation by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III, which leads to decreased levels of fibrinogen. Therefore, an increase in fibrinogen levels would indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. Incorrect choices: A: increased platelet count - Heparin therapy does not typically affect platelet count, so an increase in platelet count would not indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. C: decreased fibrin split products - Decreased fibrin split products may not necessarily indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy, as other factors can also influence their levels. D: decreased bleeding - While decreased bleeding can be a positive outcome of Heparin therapy, it is not a direct assessment finding that indicates a positive response to the therapy.