The nurse would monitor the client for which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trousseau's sign. This involves carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure, indicating hypocalcemia. The nurse should monitor for this sign in clients at risk for low calcium levels. Hypoglycemia and hypokalemia have specific signs and symptoms not related to Trousseau's sign. Respiratory changes are nonspecific and may not be directly related to monitoring for low calcium levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessing the GI tract helps determine the client's readiness for feeding. Bowel sounds indicate gut motility, last BM assesses bowel function, and distention indicates possible issues. Option B is incorrect as it pertains more to neurological assessment. Option C is not a priority assessment before feeding. Option D is incorrect as formula should be warmed to room temperature before feeding to prevent GI upset.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pathologic bone fractures. In multiple myeloma, there is an increase in osteoclast activity leading to bone destruction, making patients prone to pathologic fractures. Chronic liver failure (A), acute heart failure (C), and hypoxemia (D) are not directly associated with multiple myeloma pathophysiology. This highlights the importance of understanding the disease process to determine the correct answer.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cheese. Cheese is high in sodium and should be avoided on a low-sodium diet. Sodium can contribute to high blood pressure and other health issues. Apples, chicken, and broccoli are all low in sodium and can be included in a low-sodium diet. Cheese is the only option that is high in sodium, making it the correct choice to avoid.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because determining whether an intervention is correct and appropriate for the given situation indicates critical thinking in nursing care implementation. This involves assessing the patient's needs, analyzing the situation, and using evidence-based practice to make informed decisions. This process ensures that interventions are tailored to individual patient needs and promotes safe and effective care delivery. Option B is incorrect because performing a procedure without clinical competency can jeopardize patient safety and is not an example of critical thinking. Option C is incorrect as establishing goals without assessment lacks a foundation in data and may lead to inappropriate care planning. Option D is incorrect as evaluating the effectiveness of interventions is a part of the nursing process but does not specifically demonstrate critical thinking in implementation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen therapy. This is the priority intervention because a high temperature and diaphoresis indicate potential respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy can help improve oxygenation and support respiratory function. Providing frequent linen changes (B) is important for hygiene but not the priority. Fluid intake (C) is essential but not as urgent as addressing respiratory distress. Maintaining complete bed rest (D) may be necessary but addressing oxygenation takes precedence in this case.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 17 drops per minute. To calculate the correct drip rate, you need to use the formula: (Volume to be infused in mL / Time in minutes) x Drop factor. In this case, if the volume to be infused is 100 mL and the time is 60 minutes with a drop factor of 20, the calculation would be: (100 / 60) x 20 = 33.33 drops per minute. Since we cannot deliver fractional drops, the closest whole number is 17 drops per minute. This ensures the correct delivery rate for the medication. Choice A (6 drops per minute) is incorrect as it would be too slow and may not deliver the medication effectively. Choice C (50 drops per minute) and Choice D (100 drops per minute) are incorrect as they would both deliver the medication too quickly, potentially causing harm to the patient. The correct answer, 17 drops per minute, ensures a safe and accurate delivery rate

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active natural immunity. The mother had chickenpox as a child, which triggered her immune system to produce antibodies, providing long-lasting protection. This is an example of active immunity because her immune system actively responded to the pathogen. Summary: B: Passive artificial immunity - This involves receiving pre-made antibodies, not produced by the individual's immune system. C: Passive natural immunity - This is acquired through placental transfer or breastfeeding, not through prior exposure to the pathogen. D: Active artificial immunity - This is acquired through vaccination, not through natural exposure to the pathogen.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutrophil. Neutrophils are the most numerous type of WBC, typically comprising 50-70% of total WBC count. They are key players in the body's immune response, phagocytizing pathogens. Basophils, eosinophils, and lymphocytes are less numerous than neutrophils. Basophils are involved in allergic reactions, eosinophils combat parasitic infections, and lymphocytes play a critical role in adaptive immunity. However, in terms of sheer numbers, neutrophils outnumber the other types of WBC.