ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse would evaluate that the patient understands what triggers allergic rhinitis by which of the following patient responses?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because airborne pollens and molds are common triggers for allergic rhinitis. Understanding these triggers helps in avoiding exposure and managing symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically relate to allergic rhinitis triggers, focusing instead on other forms of medication or topical applications. By understanding airborne triggers, the patient can take appropriate preventive measures.
Question 2 of 5
A woman sees her primary care provider because of extreme fatigue for the past 2 months; she difficulty lifting even light objects. Her physician suspects myasthenia gravis. Which of the ff. tests should the nurse anticipate to confirm this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tensilon test. The Tensilon test involves administering edrophonium (Tensilon) to temporarily improve muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis patients, confirming the diagnosis. Other choices are incorrect: A (Mestinon test) is not a standard diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis, B (Pulmonary function studies) are not specific for myasthenia gravis, and C (Quinine tolerance test) is not a relevant test for this condition.
Question 3 of 5
A client with ascites has a paracentesis, and 1500 ml of fluid is removed. Immediately following the procedure it is most important for the nurse to observe for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A rapid, thready pulse. After paracentesis, rapid removal of ascitic fluid can lead to a decrease in intravascular volume, causing hypovolemia and subsequent compensatory mechanisms like tachycardia (rapid pulse). This is a crucial sign that the nurse should monitor for early detection of hypovolemia. B: Decreased peristalsis is not directly related to paracentesis and is not an immediate concern post-procedure. C: Respiratory congestion is not a common complication of paracentesis and is not the most immediate concern. D: An increased temperature is not a typical response to paracentesis and is not a priority observation post-procedure.
Question 4 of 5
The most effective pharmacologic agent for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levodopa. Levodopa is the most effective pharmacologic agent for Parkinson's disease as it is converted to dopamine in the brain, replenishing dopamine levels which are depleted in Parkinson's. Selegiline and Symmetrel provide symptomatic relief but are not as effective as Levodopa. Permax is not commonly used due to its association with serious side effects like heart valve damage.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the ff nursing interventions should a nurse perform when caring for a client with congestive heart failure who has decreased cardiac output?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess apical heart before administering digitalis. This is important because digitalis can slow down the heart rate, so it is crucial to monitor the client's heart rate before giving the medication to prevent further decrease in cardiac output. Encouraging activities that engage the Valsalva maneuver (A) is contraindicated in clients with congestive heart failure as it can lead to increased intra-thoracic pressure and decreased venous return, worsening cardiac output. Encouraging the client to perform exercises (B) may also increase cardiac workload and exacerbate symptoms. Offering small frequent feedings (D) is generally beneficial for clients with congestive heart failure to prevent overeating and promote easier digestion, but it does not directly address the decreased cardiac output concern in this scenario.
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