ATI RN
Fetal Development Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse would anticipate that a patient with elevated levels of which hormone would require radiologic imaging of the brain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: prolactin. Elevated prolactin levels can indicate a pituitary tumor, which may require brain imaging. TSH, progesterone, and FSH are not typically associated with the need for brain imaging. TSH is related to thyroid function, progesterone to the menstrual cycle, and FSH to reproductive health. Prolactin is the hormone primarily associated with lactation and can be elevated due to various reasons, including pituitary tumors. Therefore, in a patient with elevated prolactin levels, brain imaging is necessary to assess for the presence of a pituitary tumor.
Question 2 of 5
A female patient with a history of infertility is scheduled to have a hysterosalpingogram. Which findings can be detected with this procedure? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tubal occlusions. Hysterosalpingogram is a diagnostic imaging procedure used to evaluate the uterus and fallopian tubes. It can detect tubal occlusions by visualizing the flow of contrast dye through the fallopian tubes. Choice B, uterine fibroids, is incorrect as hysterosalpingogram does not specifically assess uterine fibroids. Choice C, cervical irritation, is also incorrect as this procedure focuses on the uterus and fallopian tubes, not the cervix. Choice D, bicornuate uterus, is incorrect as hysterosalpingogram primarily evaluates tubal patency and uterine cavity shape, not specific uterine anomalies like a bicornuate uterus.
Question 3 of 5
A 37-year-old patient is being seen for her first OB appointment after having a positive pregnancy test at home. She thinks she is about 6 weeks pregnant. She and her husband have been trying to conceive for 7 years, and she has a history of three spontaneous abortions. What antepartum testing do you anticipate the provider ordering at today’s visit?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: a vaginal ultrasound to confirm gestation age, due date, and pregnancy viability. At the first OB appointment, confirming gestational age and viability is crucial, especially for a patient with a history of spontaneous abortions. This ultrasound will help determine the accurate due date and assess the viability of the pregnancy. Maternal assay blood tests for genetic and chromosomal disorders (choice B) are usually done later in the pregnancy, around 10-13 weeks. Nuchal translucency ultrasound (choice C) and integrated screen blood test (choice D) are typically done between 11-14 weeks and are not usually ordered at the first OB appointment.
Question 4 of 5
What is the purpose of chorionic villus sampling (CVS) in the first trimester?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: CVS is done in the first trimester to assess the risk of chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus by obtaining a sample of cells from the placenta. This allows for genetic testing to detect conditions such as Down syndrome. Other choices are incorrect as CVS is not used to measure amniotic fluid quantity (A), confirm pregnancy (B), or assess maternal infection (D).
Question 5 of 5
A 27-year-old patient presents with injuries sustained in a motor vehicle accident. She was wearing her seatbelt and has multiple bruises and scrapes along her abdomen. She complains of pain 3/10 in her abdomen. She is G1P0 and is at 14 weeks’ gestation. A bedside ultrasound scan confirms that the fetus is stable and not in any distress. The patient is Rh negative, and her husband is Rh positive. What do you anticipate being the next step?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM). In this scenario, the patient is Rh negative and her husband is Rh positive, which puts her at risk for Rh isoimmunization. Administration of Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) helps prevent the mother's immune system from developing antibodies against the Rh-positive fetus's blood, thereby protecting future pregnancies. This intervention is crucial in preventing hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A: Obtaining a urinalysis is not indicated in this case as the patient's main concern is her abdominal pain and pregnancy status, not related to her urinalysis. Choice C: Discharging the patient without administering Rh(D) immune globulin would be inappropriate as it puts future pregnancies at risk of complications due to Rh incompatibility. Choice D: Scheduling a follow-up ultrasound is not the immediate next step. Administering Rh(D) immune globulin is the priority to