ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse will monitor a patient for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia if the patient is taking which of these diuretics?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by promoting potassium retention in the body. Therefore, patients taking spironolactone are at a higher risk of developing hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, and even cardiac arrest. It is important for the nurse to monitor patients on spironolactone for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia, such as weakness, numbness, tingling, or an irregular heartbeat. Other diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide (A), furosemide (B), and acetazolamide (C) do not typically cause hyperkalemia as they work to decrease potassium levels in the body.
Question 2 of 5
A 38-year-old man with hypertension experiences a first ever attack of acute pain, redness and tenderness in the left first metatarsophalangeal joint ('podagra'). His medication is furosemide, calcium carbonate and irbesartan. Serum uric acid is 0.78 mmol/L (upper limit of normal for men 0.48 mmol/L). Which of the following is most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acute gout (podagra) requires rapid inflammation relief. Paracetamol offers analgesia but no anti-inflammatory effect, inadequate here. Aspirin, at low doses, retains uric acid, worsening gout; at high doses, it's uricosuric but not ideal acutely. Probenecid lowers uric acid long-term, not for acute attacks. Allopurinol prevents gout but can precipitate attacks if started now. Diclofenac, an NSAID, reduces inflammation and pain fast, the most appropriate acute treatment. Its efficacy targets gout's pathophysiology, critical for symptom control.
Question 3 of 5
A client takes calcium three times a day in the form of supplements. The nurse will advise the client to take the drug
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Calcium absorbs best with food-fat aids uptake, per pharmacokinetics-unlike empty stomach or tea (tannins bind). Zinc competes-separate dosing. Food optimizes, per guidance.
Question 4 of 5
Following surgery, a client is placed on cefotaxime (Claforan). The assessment for possible adverse effects should include observing for
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cefotaxime is a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic commonly used to treat bacterial infections post-surgery. One of its most significant and frequent adverse effects is disruption of the gastrointestinal flora, which can lead to diarrhea, including potentially severe conditions like Clostridioides difficile-associated diarrhea. This makes monitoring for diarrhea a critical nursing action, as it can indicate a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. While headache, constipation, and tachycardia can occur with various medications, they are less commonly associated with cefotaxime compared to diarrhea. Headache might suggest a neurological issue or dehydration, constipation could relate to immobility post-surgery rather than the drug itself, and tachycardia might indicate an allergic reaction or systemic issue, but these are not the primary concerns with this antibiotic. Diarrhea, however, directly correlates with cefotaxime's impact on gut microbiota, making it the priority observation for adverse effects in this scenario, thus supporting choice A as the correct answer.
Question 5 of 5
Haloperidol:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, causes hypotension less than phenothiazines, so that's not its hallmark. It's highly prone to extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) like dystonia due to strong D2 receptor blockade, a true statement. Arrhythmias (e.g., QT prolongation) occur but aren't its primary issue. Antimuscarinic effects are minimal compared to other antipsychotics. Confusion is possible but not its defining toxicity. EPS prominence drives the need for adjunctive anticholinergics in treatment, a key consideration in schizophrenia management.