ATI RN
Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse will assess a loss of ability in which of the following areas?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Balance. Loss of ability in balance can indicate neurological, musculoskeletal, or sensory issues affecting mobility. Speech (B) is related to communication, judgment (C) to decision-making, and endurance (D) to stamina, not specifically to loss of ability. Balance is crucial for mobility and overall function, making it a priority area for assessment in healthcare settings.
Question 2 of 5
Which assessment action will help the nurse determine if the patient with Bell’s Palsy is receiving adequate nutrition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assess swallowing reflex. This is crucial for a patient with Bell's Palsy as it can affect their ability to swallow properly, leading to inadequate nutrition intake. By assessing the swallowing reflex, the nurse can determine if the patient is at risk of aspiration or difficulty in eating, which directly impacts their nutrition status. Monitoring meal trays (A) may not provide accurate information on actual food intake. Checking weights (B) only gives limited information on nutrition status. Measuring intake and output (C) is important for fluid balance but may not directly reflect adequate nutrition intake.
Question 3 of 5
A surgical intervention that can cause substantial remission of myasthenia gravis is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thymectomy. Thymectomy involves the surgical removal of the thymus gland, which is often abnormal in individuals with myasthenia gravis. The thymus plays a role in the development of the immune system and can contribute to the autoimmune response seen in myasthenia gravis. By removing the thymus gland, the autoimmune response may be reduced, leading to substantial remission of symptoms. Choice A, Esophagostomy, involves creating a surgical opening into the esophagus and is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis. Choice C, Myomectomy, is the surgical removal of uterine fibroids and is unrelated to myasthenia gravis. Choice D, Spleenectomy, is the removal of the spleen and is not a standard treatment for myasthenia gravis.
Question 4 of 5
The client with epilepsy is taking the prescribed dose of phenytoin (Dilantin) to control seizures. Results of a phenytoin blood level study reveal a level of 35 mcg/ml. Which of the following symptoms would be expected as a result of this laboratory result?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystagmus. A phenytoin blood level of 35 mcg/ml is above the therapeutic range (usually 10-20 mcg/ml). Excessive levels can lead to symptoms such as nystagmus, which is an involuntary eye movement commonly seen with phenytoin toxicity. Nystagmus is a known side effect of phenytoin overdose. Choices B and C are incorrect because a level of 35 mcg/ml is not within the normal therapeutic range, so symptoms would be expected. Choice D, Slurred speech, is not typically associated with phenytoin toxicity.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the ff should qualify as an abnormal result in a Romberg test?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. In a Romberg test, the patient stands with feet together and eyes closed to assess proprioception. 2. Swaying, losing balance, or arm drifting indicates impaired proprioception, suggesting a positive Romberg sign, which is abnormal. 3. Hypotension (choice A) is not directly related to the Romberg test. 4. Sneezing and wheezing (choice C) are unrelated to the test. 5. Excessive cerumen in the outer ear (choice D) does not affect proprioception. Summary: Choice B is correct as it directly relates to impaired proprioception, which is abnormal in a Romberg test. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are unrelated to the purpose of the test.