ATI RN
Burns Pediatric Primary Care 7th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse understands that which of the ff. is a side effect most likely to be reported by patients receiving enalapril maleate (Vasotec)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most common side effect reported by patients receiving enalapril maleate (Vasotec) is a persistent dry cough. This cough is due to the medication's effect on bradykinin levels in the body, leading to irritation of the respiratory tract and causing the cough. While other side effects such as diarrhea and heartburn may occur, cough is the most frequently reported side effect associated with enalapril maleate. Acne is not a commonly reported side effect of this medication.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse understands that which of the ff. is a side effect most likely to be reported by patients receiving enalapril maleate (Vasotec)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most common side effect reported by patients receiving enalapril maleate (Vasotec) is a persistent dry cough. This cough is due to the medication's effect on bradykinin levels in the body, leading to irritation of the respiratory tract and causing the cough. While other side effects such as diarrhea and heartburn may occur, cough is the most frequently reported side effect associated with enalapril maleate. Acne is not a commonly reported side effect of this medication.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has orders to receive 1 L (1000 mL) of 5% dextrose and lactated Ringer's solution to be infused over 8 hours. How many millilitres will be infused per hour?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The total volume to be infused over 8 hours is 1000 mL. To determine how many millilitres will be infused per hour, you can divide the total volume by the total time:
Question 4 of 9
You are meeting with parents of a 10-year-old child who recently develops acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). Which of the following is LEAST likely to increase the risk of CNS relapse in children with ALL?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A first traumatic lumbar puncture is less likely to increase the risk of CNS relapse compared to other factors like T-cell leukemia or cranial nerve involvement.
Question 5 of 9
a definitive diagnosis of sickle cell disease is based on which diagnostic result
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A definitive diagnosis of sickle cell disease is based on hemoglobin electrophoresis. This test separates the different types of hemoglobin based on their electrical charge, allowing for the detection of abnormal hemoglobin variants such as hemoglobin S, which is characteristic of sickle cell disease. A complete blood count (CBC) can show various abnormalities seen in sickle cell disease, but it is not specific for confirming the diagnosis. Bone marrow aspiration is not routinely used for diagnosing sickle cell disease. Blood chemistry tests may reveal some complications associated with sickle cell disease but do not confirm the condition itself. Hemoglobin electrophoresis is the gold standard for diagnosing sickle cell disease by identifying the specific hemoglobin variant characteristic of the disorder.
Question 6 of 9
The nursing staff has a team conference on AIDS and discusses the routes of transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HSV). The discussion reveals that an individual has no risk of exposure to HIV when that individual;
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. An individual has no risk of exposure to HIV when they limit sexual contact to those without HIV antibodies. This is because HIV is primarily transmitted through contact with body fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk of an infected person. If an individual only engages in sexual activities with people who do not have HIV antibodies, the risk of exposure to the virus is significantly reduced. It is important to note that although this reduces the risk, it does not completely eliminate it, as there is still a chance of transmission through other means such as sharing needles or from mother to child during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding.
Question 7 of 9
Which tool measures body fat most accurately?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Calipers are considered the most accurate tool for measuring body fat percentage when used properly. Calipers work by measuring skinfold thickness at various locations on the body, and this measurement is then used in specific equations to calculate body fat percentage. While the other tools mentioned can provide some insights into body composition, they are not as precise as calipers when it comes to accurately measuring body fat percentage.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is teaching nursing students about childhood skin lesions. Which is an elevated, circumscribed skin lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter and filled with serous fluid?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A vesicle is an elevated, circumscribed skin lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter and filled with serous fluid. Serous fluid is a clear, watery fluid that can accumulate within the vesicle. Vesicles are commonly seen in conditions such as herpes simplex virus infections (cold sores) and contact dermatitis. It is important for nursing students to understand the characteristics of different skin lesions to accurately assess and provide appropriate care for patients.
Question 9 of 9
all the following are major signs of DM except :
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hyporeflexia (reduced deep tendon reflexes) and bradycardia (slow heart rate) are not typical signs of diabetes mellitus (DM). The major signs of DM are the classic "3 Ps": polydipsia (excessive thirst), polyuria (excessive urination), and polyphagia (excessive hunger). These symptoms are usually due to elevated blood glucose levels leading to increased thirst, frequent urination, and hunger. Additionally, unexplained weight loss can also be a common symptom of DM. Other complications related to DM, such as neuropathy, can lead to issues like hyporeflexia, but they are not considered major signs of DM itself.