ATI RN
Introduction to Maternity and Pediatric Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse understands that which of the ff. best describes the action of propanolol (Inderal)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Propranolol (Inderal) is a non-selective beta-blocker that works by blocking beta receptors in the heart and blood vessels. By blocking these receptors, propranolol decreases the effects of adrenaline, leading to a decrease in heart rate, blood pressure, and cardiac output. This results in a reduction in the workload of the heart, making it an effective medication for conditions such as hypertension, angina, and certain types of arrhythmias. Overall, the action of propranolol leads to a decrease in cardiac output, contrary to the options that suggest an increase in heart rate, fluid volume, or cardiac contractility.
Question 2 of 5
Five girls were victims of wasp and bee bites. Emergency treatment for these includes:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: For emergency treatment of wasp and bee bites, it is essential to follow evidence-based guidelines. The options provided, using a poultice of sodium bicarbonate and water or a weak solution of household ammonia, are not considered effective or safe treatments for wasp and bee stings. The recommended first aid treatment for wasp and bee stings includes:
Question 3 of 5
In which of the ff clients will an MRI scan be contraindicated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An MRI scan uses strong magnetic fields and radio waves to create detailed images of the body's internal structures. Clients with metal implants in their body, such as pacemakers, artificial joints, or other metallic objects, may experience potential risks and complications during an MRI scan. The strong magnetic field can interact with the metal in the body, causing movement, heating, or potential damage to the surrounding tissues. Hence, it is contraindicated to perform an MRI scan on clients with metal implants to avoid harm and ensure their safety.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the ff is a sign of urinary retention in older adults with a neurologic deficit?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Urinary retention in older adults with a neurologic deficit can lead to a behavior change. This change may manifest as increased restlessness, agitation, or discomfort. It is important to be vigilant for any sudden alterations in behavior as they may indicate underlying complications such as urinary retention, which can be more challenging to identify in older individuals who may have difficulty communicating their symptoms clearly. Monitoring for behavior changes can help healthcare providers promptly address and manage urinary retention in these individuals.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client in the emergency room diagnosed with Bell's palsy. The client has been taking acetaminophen (Tylenol), and acetaminophen overdose is suspected. The nurse anticipates that the antidote to be prescribed is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) is the antidote for acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. If an overdose of acetaminincophen is suspected, acetylcysteine should be administered within 8-10 hours of ingestion to prevent liver damage and failure. Pentostatin, Fludarabine, and Auranofin are not antidotes for acetaminophen overdose and are used for other medical conditions.