ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse understands that which of the ff. best describes the action of propanolol (Inderal)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that acts on the heart. 2. It blocks beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to decreased heart rate and contractility. 3. Decreased heart rate and contractility result in reduced cardiac output. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is C - It decreases cardiac output. Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect because propranolol does not increase heart rate, fluid volume, or cardiac contractility.
Question 2 of 9
With pulmonary edema, there is usually an alteration in:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pulmonary edema causes an increase in pressure in the pulmonary circulation, leading to an alteration in afterload due to increased resistance. It also causes fluid accumulation in the pulmonary vessels, affecting preload. Additionally, the heart may compensate by increasing contractility. Therefore, all of the above choices are altered in pulmonary edema. The incorrect choices are A, B, and C individually as they only represent one aspect of the alterations seen in pulmonary edema, while the correct answer D encompasses all three factors affected in this condition.
Question 3 of 9
Nutritional considerations as part of the nursing care plan would include all of the following except that:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B: Calcium should be avoided Rationale: 1. Calcium is an essential mineral for bone health, especially important for individuals with limited mobility like Richard. 2. Avoiding calcium can lead to bone weakening and increase the risk of fractures. 3. Nursing care plans should include adequate calcium intake to support bone health. 4. Therefore, avoiding calcium is not a recommended nutritional consideration. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: The diet should be semisolid to facilitate the passage of food - This is important for individuals with swallowing difficulties. C: The patient should be sitting in an upright position during feeding - This aids in proper digestion and reduces the risk of aspiration. D: Thick fluids should be encouraged to provide additional calories - Thick fluids may increase the risk of aspiration in patients with neurological conditions.
Question 4 of 9
In which of the ff clients will an MRI scan be contraindicated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clients with metal implants in their body. An MRI uses strong magnetic fields, which can interact with metal implants, causing movement or heating of the metal and potential harm to the client. This could lead to serious injuries or complications during the scan. Overweight clients (choice A), clients over the age of 60 (choice C), and clients with brain tumors (choice D) do not have contraindications for an MRI scan.
Question 5 of 9
What is the causative agent in HIV/AIDS?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Human, T-cell lymphotrophic virus, as it is the causative agent for HIV/AIDS. This virus specifically targets and infects the body's T-cells, weakening the immune system. Trichomonas vaginalis, Treponema pallidum, and Chlamydia trachomatis are all different pathogens that do not cause HIV/AIDS. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis, Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, and Chlamydia trachomatis causes chlamydia. Therefore, the correct answer is C based on the specific viral agent responsible for HIV/AIDS.
Question 6 of 9
While completing an admission database, the nurse is interviewing a patient who states “I am allergic to latex.” Which action will the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to describe the type of reaction. This is the first action the nurse should take because it helps determine the severity of the allergy and how to best proceed with care. By understanding the specific type of reaction the patient experiences, the nurse can implement appropriate precautions and interventions to prevent any adverse reactions during the patient's stay. Choice A is incorrect because placing the patient in isolation is not necessary for a latex allergy. Choice C is incorrect as terminating the interview is premature and does not address the patient's allergy. Choice D is also incorrect as documenting the allergy is important but not the first action to take when assessing a patient's allergic reaction.
Question 7 of 9
. A client with a suspected left sided heart failure is scheduled to undergo a multigated acquisition scan. Which of the following actions is required before undergoing the test?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: - A: Diuretics are not necessary before the test and may affect test results. - B: Dehydration is not recommended before the test as it can impact cardiac function. - C: Medication to relieve cough is necessary to reduce any potential interference with the scan. - D: Administering analgesics is not required for the test and may not be relevant to the client's condition.
Question 8 of 9
A client with cancer is scheduled for radiation therapy. The nurse knows that radiation at any treatment site may cause a certain adverse effect. Therefore, the nurse should prepare the client to expect:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hair loss. Radiation therapy targets fast-growing cancer cells, which can also affect healthy cells such as those in hair follicles, leading to hair loss. This adverse effect occurs commonly with radiation therapy due to its impact on rapidly dividing cells. Hair loss is a well-known side effect that clients undergoing radiation therapy are often prepared for. The other choices, B: Fatigue, C: Stomatitis, and D: Vomiting, are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, but hair loss is specifically associated with radiation treatment due to its effect on hair follicles. Fatigue is a common side effect of cancer treatment in general, stomatitis is more commonly associated with chemotherapy, and vomiting can be a side effect of radiation but is not as directly linked as hair loss.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client who had a thyroidectomy and is at risk for hypocalcemia. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Observe for muscle twitching and numbness or tingling of the lips, fingers, and toes. After a thyroidectomy, the parathyroid glands may be inadvertently damaged, leading to hypocalcemia. Muscle twitching and numbness/tingling are early signs of hypocalcemia. The nurse should monitor for these symptoms to detect and address hypocalcemia promptly. Choice A is incorrect as monitoring thyroid-stimulating hormone levels is not related to hypocalcemia. Choice B is incorrect as it describes signs of potential complications like bleeding or airway obstruction, not hypocalcemia. Choice C is incorrect as changes in voice quality and gastric issues are not specific to hypocalcemia.