ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse understands that which of the ff. best describes the action of propanolol (Inderal)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that acts on the heart. 2. It blocks beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to decreased heart rate and contractility. 3. Decreased heart rate and contractility result in reduced cardiac output. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is C - It decreases cardiac output. Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect because propranolol does not increase heart rate, fluid volume, or cardiac contractility.
Question 2 of 9
What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly. This is because regular screening with both tests can help detect prostate cancer early. The digital rectal exam allows the doctor to feel for any abnormalities in the prostate gland, while the PSA test measures the levels of a specific protein produced by the prostate gland. If there are any concerning findings, further diagnostic tests can be done to confirm prostate cancer. Choice B is incorrect because transrectal ultrasound is not a recommended screening test for prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as testicular self-examinations are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.
Question 3 of 9
While completing an admission database, the nurse is interviewing a patient who states “I am allergic to latex.” Which action will the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to describe the type of reaction. This is the first action the nurse should take to assess the severity of the latex allergy and determine appropriate interventions. By gathering more information about the reaction, the nurse can better understand the potential risks and provide safe care. Summary of other choices: A: Immediately placing the patient in isolation is unnecessary and not indicated based solely on the patient's latex allergy. C: Proceeding to the termination phase of the interview is premature without fully assessing the patient's allergy. D: Documenting the allergy is important but should not be the first action without assessing the reaction itself.
Question 4 of 9
A client with cancer is scheduled for radiation therapy. The nurse knows that radiation at any treatment site may cause a certain adverse effect. Therefore, the nurse should prepare the client to expect:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hair loss. Radiation therapy targets fast-growing cancer cells, which can also affect healthy cells such as those in hair follicles, leading to hair loss. This adverse effect occurs commonly with radiation therapy due to its impact on rapidly dividing cells. Hair loss is a well-known side effect that clients undergoing radiation therapy are often prepared for. The other choices, B: Fatigue, C: Stomatitis, and D: Vomiting, are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, but hair loss is specifically associated with radiation treatment due to its effect on hair follicles. Fatigue is a common side effect of cancer treatment in general, stomatitis is more commonly associated with chemotherapy, and vomiting can be a side effect of radiation but is not as directly linked as hair loss.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following blood types would the nurse identify as the rarest?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (AB). AB blood type is the rarest because it is a result of inheriting both A and B alleles, making it less common in the population. AB individuals can only receive blood from other AB individuals due to their unique antigens. Blood types A, B, and O are more common in the population, with O being the most common as it is the universal donor. Blood type A and B are more common than AB since they only require one allele for their respective antigens. Thus, the rarity of AB blood type is due to the inheritance of both A and B alleles, making it the least common among the choices provided.
Question 6 of 9
On a visit to the gynecologist, a client complains of urinary frequency, pelvic discomfort, and weight loss. After a complete physical examination, blood studies, and a pelvic examination with a Papanicolaou test, the physician diagnoses stage IV ovarian cancer. The nurse expects to prepare the client for which initial treatment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct initial treatment for stage IV ovarian cancer is major surgery (Choice C). This is because at this advanced stage, surgery is typically performed to debulk the tumor and remove as much cancerous tissue as possible, followed by chemotherapy to target any remaining cancer cells. Radiation therapy (Choice A) is not typically the initial treatment for ovarian cancer. Chemotherapy (Choice B) is often used in combination with surgery, but surgery is usually the first line of treatment for stage IV disease. Choosing no treatment (Choice D) would be detrimental as the cancer is advanced and requires immediate intervention.
Question 7 of 9
A client is undergoing a diagnostic work-up for suspected testicular cancer. When obtaining the client’s history, the nurse checks for known risk factors for this type of cancer. Testicular cancer has been linked to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cryptorchidism. Cryptorchidism, or undescended testicle, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer as the undescended testicle is more prone to developing cancerous changes. This condition increases the risk of testicular cancer even if the testicle is surgically corrected later in life. Other choices like A (Testosterone therapy during childhood) and B (Sexually transmitted disease) are not linked to testicular cancer. Choice C (Early onset of puberty) is not a direct risk factor for testicular cancer.
Question 8 of 9
A client is admitted with a serum glucose of 618mg/dl. The client is awake and oriented, with hot, dry skin; a temperature of 100.6F (38.1 C); a heart rate of 116beats/min; and a blood pressure of 108/70mmHg. Based on these findings, which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Deficient fluid volume related to osmotic diuresis. With a serum glucose level of 618mg/dl, the client is likely experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis, leading to excessive urination (osmotic diuresis) and dehydration. The priority is to address fluid volume deficit to prevent hypovolemic shock. The other options are not the priority because: B: Decreased cardiac output is a result of the increased heart rate, not the primary issue. C: Imbalanced nutrition is important but not as urgent as fluid volume deficit. D: Ineffective thermoregulation is a concern but not the priority in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
What is the causative agent in HIV/AIDS?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Human, T-cell lymphotrophic virus, as it is the causative agent for HIV/AIDS. This virus specifically targets and infects the body's T-cells, weakening the immune system. Trichomonas vaginalis, Treponema pallidum, and Chlamydia trachomatis are all different pathogens that do not cause HIV/AIDS. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that causes trichomoniasis, Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, and Chlamydia trachomatis causes chlamydia. Therefore, the correct answer is C based on the specific viral agent responsible for HIV/AIDS.