ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse understands that which of the ff. best describes the action of propanolol (Inderal)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that acts on the heart. 2. It blocks beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to decreased heart rate and contractility. 3. Decreased heart rate and contractility result in reduced cardiac output. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is C - It decreases cardiac output. Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect because propranolol does not increase heart rate, fluid volume, or cardiac contractility.
Question 2 of 9
A goal for a patient with diabetes is to demonstrate effective coping skills. Which patient behavior will indicate to the nurse achievement of this outcome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because stating feeling better after talking with family and friends demonstrates the use of healthy coping skills. This behavior indicates the patient is seeking and utilizing social support, which is crucial for managing stress and emotions effectively in diabetes management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because consuming high-carbohydrate foods when stressed can lead to poor blood sugar control, disliking support group meetings indicates avoidance of beneficial support resources, and spending most of the day in bed can contribute to physical and emotional deterioration, rather than effective coping.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse will monitor J.E. for the following signs and symptoms:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because signs and symptoms listed are indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which is a serious condition where blood clotting and bleeding occur simultaneously. Change in level of consciousness can indicate hypoperfusion from clotting in blood vessels. Tachypnea and tachycardia can result from tissue hypoxia. Petechiae are small red or purple spots on the skin due to bleeding under the skin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical signs and symptoms of DIC. Choice B suggests a possible myocardial infarction or acute coronary syndrome. Choice C indicates a possible thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) or acute limb ischemia. Choice D suggests a mix of symptoms that do not typically present together in DIC.
Question 4 of 9
An adult is to receive narcotic analgesics via patient controlled analgesia. The nurse is evaluating client’s understanding of the procedure. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that she understand PCA?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I will press the button whenever I feel pain." This answer demonstrates understanding of how patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) works, where the client self-administers medication when needed for pain relief. Option A is incorrect as the machine is programmed with lockout intervals to prevent overdosing. Option C is incorrect as the client should only press the button when experiencing pain, not on a fixed schedule. Option D is incorrect as PCA does not guarantee complete pain elimination. The key in PCA is empowering the client to self-administer medication based on their pain level.
Question 5 of 9
While completing an admission database, the nurse is interviewing a patient who states “I am allergic to latex.” Which action will the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to describe the type of reaction. This is the first action the nurse should take because it helps determine the severity of the allergy and how to best proceed with care. By understanding the specific type of reaction the patient experiences, the nurse can implement appropriate precautions and interventions to prevent any adverse reactions during the patient's stay. Choice A is incorrect because placing the patient in isolation is not necessary for a latex allergy. Choice C is incorrect as terminating the interview is premature and does not address the patient's allergy. Choice D is also incorrect as documenting the allergy is important but not the first action to take when assessing a patient's allergic reaction.
Question 6 of 9
A 17-year-old student enters the emergency department with a nosebleed that won’t quit. Which of the following positions is recommended for the patient with a nosebleed?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sitting up leaning slightly forward. This position helps prevent blood from flowing back into the throat, reducing the risk of choking and aspiration. It also allows for better drainage of blood out of the nose. Lying down with feet elevated (choice A) can increase blood flow to the head and worsen the nosebleed. Sitting up with neck extended (choice B) can lead to blood flowing into the throat. Lying down with a small pillow under the head (choice C) may cause blood to flow backward.
Question 7 of 9
A client with hypothyroidism (myxedema) is receiving levothyroxine (Synthroid), 25 mcg PO daily. Which finding should the nurse recognize as an adverse effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism. If the dose is too high, it can lead to symptoms of hyperthyroidism, including tachycardia (rapid heartbeat). This is because an excess of thyroid hormone can increase the heart rate. Dysuria (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of levothyroxine. Leg cramps (choice C) are more commonly associated with electrolyte imbalances. Blurred vision (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of levothyroxine.
Question 8 of 9
In which of the ff clients will an MRI scan be contraindicated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clients with metal implants in their body. An MRI uses strong magnetic fields, which can interact with metal implants, causing movement or heating of the metal and potential harm to the client. This could lead to serious injuries or complications during the scan. Overweight clients (choice A), clients over the age of 60 (choice C), and clients with brain tumors (choice D) do not have contraindications for an MRI scan.
Question 9 of 9
A client who is receiving a blood transfusion begins to experience chills, shortness of breath, nausea, excessive perspiration, and a vague sense of uneasiness. What is the nurse’s first best action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Stop the infusion. This is the best action because the client is likely experiencing a transfusion reaction. Stopping the infusion immediately is crucial to prevent further complications. Reporting the signs and symptoms to the healthcare provider (A) can cause a delay in addressing the reaction. While monitoring vital signs (B) and assessing respiratory status (C) are important, stopping the infusion takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and prevent a severe reaction.