The nurse understands that which of the ff. best describes the action of propanolol (Inderal)?

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ATI RN Test Bank

Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

The nurse understands that which of the ff. best describes the action of propanolol (Inderal)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that acts on the heart. 2. It blocks beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to decreased heart rate and contractility. 3. Decreased heart rate and contractility result in reduced cardiac output. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is C - It decreases cardiac output. Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect because propranolol does not increase heart rate, fluid volume, or cardiac contractility.

Question 2 of 9

Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the nurse should assess the client care fully for which of the following conditions?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypocortisolism. After a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the pituitary gland is removed or partially removed, leading to decreased cortisol production. Signs of hypocortisolism include weakness, fatigue, hypotension, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances. Hyperglycemia (B) is not typically associated with this procedure. Hypoglycemia (C) is not a common concern post-hypophysectomy. Hypercalcemia (D) is not directly related to pituitary gland removal. Therefore, assessing for hypocortisolism is crucial for early detection and management post-surgery.

Question 3 of 9

Mrs. Zeno continues to become a weaker despite .treatment with neostigmine. Edrophonium HCL is ordered:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: To rule out cholinergic crisis caused by Neostigmine. Edrophonium HCL is a fast-acting cholinesterase inhibitor used to differentiate between myasthenic crisis and cholinergic crisis. If the patient's weakness improves after administration of edrophonium, it indicates that the weakness was due to myasthenia gravis and not cholinergic crisis caused by excessive neostigmine. Choice A is incorrect because there is no synergestic effect between neostigmine and edrophonium. Choice B is incorrect as resistance to neostigmine is not a valid reason for ordering edrophonium. Choice D is incorrect because edrophonium is used for differential diagnosis, not for confirming the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis.

Question 4 of 9

At a public health fair, a nurse discusses the dangers of sun exposure. Prolonged sun exposure has been blamed for which form of cancer?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Malignant melanoma, basal cell epithelioma, and squamous cell carcinoma are all forms of skin cancer associated with prolonged sun exposure. Melanoma is the deadliest form, originating in melanocytes; basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas are more common but less aggressive. All three types can develop due to cumulative UV radiation exposure. Therefore, all options are correct in this context.

Question 5 of 9

A client with pernicious anemia is receiving parenteral vitamin B12 therapy. Which client statement indicates effective teaching about this therapy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: “I will receive parenteral vitamin B12 therapy for the rest of my life.” This statement is correct because pernicious anemia is a lifelong condition requiring ongoing vitamin B12 supplementation. Patients with pernicious anemia lack intrinsic factor, which is needed to absorb vitamin B12 from food. Therefore, they need lifelong B12 therapy to prevent complications such as anemia and neurological damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they suggest a limited duration of therapy. Pernicious anemia is a chronic condition that necessitates continuous treatment. Choice A implies therapy until signs and symptoms disappear, which may not address the underlying cause of the deficiency. Choice B mentions therapy until vitamin B12 levels normalize, which may not prevent recurrence. Choice C suggests monthly therapy for a fixed period, which may not be sufficient for lifelong management.

Question 6 of 9

In teaching a female client who is HIV positive about pregnancy, the nurse would know more teaching is necessary when the client says:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because starting birth control pills does not protect against HIV transmission to the baby during pregnancy. The other choices demonstrate understanding of HIV transmission risks and prevention methods. A shows awareness of vertical transmission, C recognizes that not all babies born to HIV-positive mothers are infected, and D acknowledges the potential need for a C-section to reduce transmission risk. Starting birth control pills is unrelated to preventing mother-to-child HIV transmission during pregnancy.

Question 7 of 9

Serum albumin Is to be administered intravenously to client with ascites, The expected outcome of this treatment will be a decrease in:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Abdominal girth. Serum albumin helps to increase oncotic pressure in the blood vessels, reducing fluid leakage into the abdomen and decreasing ascites, leading to a decrease in abdominal girth. Option A is incorrect because serum albumin does not directly affect urinary output. Option B is incorrect as serum albumin does not directly impact serum ammonia levels. Option D is incorrect because while serum albumin can help improve liver function, it does not directly treat hepatic encephalopathy.

Question 8 of 9

In which of the ff circumstances should a nurse avoid using midline and mid clavicular sites for IV therapy? Choose all that apply.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To administer antineoplastic chemotherapy. This is because antineoplastic chemotherapy agents are highly irritating and toxic to the surrounding tissues. Using midline and mid clavicular sites for IV therapy in this case can increase the risk of extravasation, leading to tissue damage and potential complications. Incorrect choices: A: To administer solutions with a pH greater than 5 and less than 9 - pH of the solution does not directly affect the choice of site for IV therapy. C: To administer slow, low-volume infusions - Midline and mid clavicular sites can be appropriate for slow, low-volume infusions. D: To administer high-pressure bolus injections - While midline and mid clavicular sites may not be ideal for high-pressure bolus injections, the question specifically mentions IV therapy, not bolus injections.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse is caring for a client who had a thyroidectomy and is at risk for hypocalcemia. What should the nurse do?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Observe for muscle twitching and numbness or tingling of the lips, fingers, and toes. After a thyroidectomy, the parathyroid glands may be inadvertently damaged, leading to hypocalcemia. Muscle twitching and numbness/tingling are early signs of hypocalcemia. The nurse should monitor for these symptoms to detect and address hypocalcemia promptly. Choice A is incorrect as monitoring thyroid-stimulating hormone levels is not related to hypocalcemia. Choice B is incorrect as it describes signs of potential complications like bleeding or airway obstruction, not hypocalcemia. Choice C is incorrect as changes in voice quality and gastric issues are not specific to hypocalcemia.

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