ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse understands that an anaphylactic reaction is considered which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type I hypersensitivity reaction. In Type I hypersensitivity, anaphylactic reactions involve immediate IgE-mediated responses to allergens, leading to histamine release and potentially life-threatening symptoms. This type of reaction is characterized by rapid onset and systemic involvement. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Type III reactions involve immune complex deposition leading to inflammation (B), Type II reactions involve cytotoxic antibodies targeting cells (C), and Type IV reactions involve delayed cell-mediated responses (D).
Question 2 of 9
A nurse identifies a fall risk when assessing a patient upon admission. The nurse and the patient agree that the goal is for the patient to remain free from falls. However, the patient fell just before shift change. Which action is the nurse’s priority when evaluating the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Identify factors interfering with goal achievement. This is the priority action because it focuses on understanding what caused the patient to fall despite the goal of preventing falls. By identifying the factors interfering with goal achievement, the nurse can make necessary adjustments to the care plan to prevent future falls. Choice B is incorrect because counseling the nursing assistive personnel and removing the fall risk sign does not address the root cause of the fall. Choice C is incorrect because shifting responsibility to the charge nurse for documentation does not address the immediate need to assess and address the factors contributing to the fall. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the fall is important but not the priority when the immediate concern is understanding why the fall occurred.
Question 3 of 9
The first thing to do for a nurse when an accident occurs is to find out if patient is conscious so that she could:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reassure the patient. The first priority in any accident scenario is to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. By checking if the patient is conscious, the nurse can assess their immediate condition and provide reassurance to alleviate any distress or anxiety. This step establishes communication and trust, allowing for further assessment and appropriate actions to be taken. Calling relatives (B) may be important but not the immediate first step. Bringing the patient immediately to the hospital (C) is premature without assessing the patient first. Calling a doctor (D) can be done after assessing the patient's condition.
Question 4 of 9
Which drug class is used to reduce symptoms of muscle weakness from myasthenia gravis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anticholinesterase drugs. These drugs increase acetylcholine levels at neuromuscular junctions, helping improve muscle strength in myasthenia gravis. Adrenergic drugs (B) and beta-blocker drugs (D) are not typically used to treat muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis. Anticholinergic drugs (C) can worsen symptoms by blocking acetylcholine receptors, making them an inappropriate choice for this condition.
Question 5 of 9
A client comes to the clinic complaining of weight loss, fatigue, and a low-grade fever. Physical examination reveals a slight enlargement of the cervical lymph nodes. To assess possible causes for the fever, it would be most appropriate for the nurse to initially ask: a."Have you bee sexually active lately?" b, "Do you have a sore throat at the present time?"
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: - The correct answer is A, "Have you been exposed recently to anyone with an infection?" because it helps assess potential sources of infection causing the low-grade fever and other symptoms. - Choice B is irrelevant as the client's current sore throat is not the main concern. - Choice C and D do not address the potential infectious etiology of the symptoms. - Overall, assessing recent exposure to infections is crucial in identifying possible sources of the client's symptoms.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse identifies Fatigue as a health problem and nursing diagnosis for a client receiving home care for metastatic cancer. What statement or question would be best to validate this client problem?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it involves collaboration with the client to validate their experience. It shows respect for the client's perspective and promotes open communication. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks client involvement. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on the nurse's interpretation rather than the client's experience. Choice C is incorrect as it may come off as accusatory or judgmental, lacking empathy.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following parts of neuron transmits impulses away from the cell body?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Axon. The axon is the part of the neuron that transmits impulses away from the cell body towards other neurons or target cells. It is coated with a myelin sheath, which helps speed up the transmission of impulses. Dendrites (A) receive signals from other neurons, the neurolemma (B) is the outermost layer of the myelin sheath, and the synapse (D) is the junction between two neurons where neurotransmitters are released. Therefore, the axon is the only part of the neuron specifically responsible for transmitting impulses away from the cell body.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching plan for a client after thyroidectomy for Grave’s disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Patients with Grave's disease who undergo thyroidectomy require regular follow-up care for monitoring thyroid hormone levels and overall health. Step 2: Regular follow-up care ensures early detection of any complications or recurrence of the disease. Step 3: Monitoring helps in adjusting medication doses and managing any potential side effects. Step 4: Choice A is important but not specific to thyroidectomy for Grave's disease. Choice B is not typically used post-thyroidectomy. Choice D may be beneficial but not a priority compared to regular follow-up care.
Question 9 of 9
A client is scheduled to receive methotrexate (Folex), 0.625 mg/kg P.O. daily, to treat malignant lymphoma. Before administering the drug, the nurse reviews the client’s medication history. Which of the following drugs might interact with methotrexate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Probenecid (Benemid). Probenecid can increase methotrexate levels, leading to potential toxicity. Methotrexate is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, and Probenecid inhibits renal tubular secretion, causing methotrexate levels to rise. Digoxin (A), theophylline (C), and famotidine (D) do not have significant interactions with methotrexate. In summary, Probenecid is the correct answer as it can increase methotrexate levels through renal tubular secretion inhibition, while the other choices do not have a significant interaction with methotrexate.