The nurse teaches a client with newly diagnosed hypothyroidism about the need for thyroid hormone replacement therapy to restore normal thyroid function. Which thyroid preparation is the agent of choice for thyroid hormone replacement therapy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the synthetic form of the thyroid hormone T4, the main hormone produced by the thyroid gland. Step 2: Levothyroxine is the preferred agent for thyroid hormone replacement therapy in hypothyroidism due to its stable and consistent potency. Step 3: Levothyroxine is well-absorbed by the body and has a long half-life, allowing for once-daily dosing. Step 4: Other choices are incorrect because Methimazole is used to treat hyperthyroidism, Livothyronine is a form of T3 hormone not commonly used for replacement therapy, and Thyroid USP dessicated is derived from animal thyroid glands and has inconsistent hormone content. Summary: Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the preferred choice for thyroid hormone replacement therapy due to its synthetic nature, stable potency, good absorption, and long half-life. Other options are not

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: bacteria. Hepatitis is primarily caused by viruses (such as Hepatitis A, B, C), toxins (like alcohol or certain medications), and chemicals/drugs. Bacteria do not typically cause hepatitis as it is a viral infection that affects the liver. Therefore, choice C is the exception among the listed causes. Viruses directly target liver cells, toxins can damage the liver, and certain chemicals/drugs can lead to liver inflammation. Hence, bacteria do not play a significant role in causing hepatitis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: severe, unrelieved pain. Compartment syndrome is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment leading to decreased blood flow and tissue damage. Severe, unrelieved pain is a hallmark sign as the pressure builds up. Weak movement of the patient's toes (choice A) could indicate nerve damage but is not specific to compartment syndrome. Decreased pedal pulses (choice B) could suggest vascular compromise but are not specific to compartment syndrome. Presence of foot pallor (choice D) could indicate poor circulation but is not a definitive sign of compartment syndrome.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: fluid volume deficit related to depletion of intravascular volume. Peritonitis causes inflammation of the peritoneum, leading to fluid shifting into the peritoneal cavity, causing hypovolemia. Hypotension and tachycardia are signs of decreased intravascular volume. Rigid abdominal muscles and rebound tenderness indicate peritoneal irritation. Choice B is incorrect because elevated ammonia levels are not associated with the client's symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because increased peristalsis does not explain the client's hypotension and tachycardia. Choice D is incorrect because malabsorption does not align with the client's acute presentation of severe abdominal pain and peritonitis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The hallmark of nephritic syndrome is edema due to proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia. Protein loss in urine causes decreased colloid osmotic pressure, leading to fluid leaking into tissues, causing edema. Osmotic diuresis (A) is unrelated to nephritic syndrome. Hypolipidemia (B) and hyperproteinemia (D) are not characteristic of nephritic syndrome.