ATI RN
ATI Practice Exam Pharmacology The Hematologic System Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse teaches a class for college students about osteoporosis. What is the best information to include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Prevention of osteoporosis begins in early adulthood. This is the best information to include because osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone density, making bones weak and susceptible to fractures. Educating college students about the importance of building strong bones early in life through proper nutrition, weight-bearing exercises, and adequate intake of calcium and vitamin D is crucial in preventing osteoporosis later in life. Option B) is incorrect because while medications can be prescribed to treat osteoporosis, they are not the primary method of prevention. Prevention strategies focusing on lifestyle modifications are key. Option C) is incorrect as osteoporosis is not inevitable with aging. While aging is a risk factor for osteoporosis, it is not a guaranteed outcome, especially if preventive measures are taken. Option D) is incorrect because men are also at risk for osteoporosis, although it is more commonly associated with women. Men should also be educated about bone health and preventive measures to reduce their risk of developing osteoporosis. In an educational context, it is important to emphasize to college students that building healthy habits early on can have a significant impact on their long-term bone health. By understanding the importance of preventative measures and lifestyle choices, individuals can take proactive steps to reduce their risk of developing osteoporosis later in life.
Question 2 of 5
A 26-year-old alcoholic man is trying to quit drinking. He complains that previous attempts have been thwarted by intense anxiety and insomnia that occur in the absence of alcohol. These symptoms disappear when he resumes alcohol use. Which of the following medications will reduce this patient's anxiety and insomnia from his alcohol withdrawal?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Methadone. Methadone is a synthetic opioid agonist that can help alleviate the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, including anxiety and insomnia, by reducing the severity of withdrawal symptoms. Methadone works by binding to the same receptors in the brain as alcohol, helping to stabilize the individual during the withdrawal process. A) Acamprosate is used to help maintain abstinence in individuals who have already stopped drinking alcohol. It does not directly address the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal like anxiety and insomnia. B) Disulfiram is used to create an unpleasant reaction when alcohol is consumed, discouraging individuals from drinking. It does not help with managing withdrawal symptoms like anxiety and insomnia. D) Naltrexone is an opioid receptor antagonist that is used to reduce alcohol cravings and the pleasurable effects of drinking. While it can be helpful in preventing relapse, it does not directly address the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal like anxiety and insomnia. Educationally, it is important to understand the pharmacological interventions available for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms and the specific mechanisms of action of each medication. This knowledge is crucial for healthcare professionals working with individuals struggling with alcohol use disorder to provide effective and evidence-based care.
Question 3 of 5
A 64-year-old man is brought to the emergency department unconscious. He undergoes a CT of the chest, which reveals a pulmonary embolism. He is considered for immediate therapy with heparin. Because the man is unconscious, a history cannot be obtained from him. Which of the following would represent a contraindication to heparin therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Recent surgery to remove genital warts, which represents a contraindication to heparin therapy. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing the formation of blood clots. After recent surgery, especially in areas with a risk of bleeding like the genital region in this case, administering heparin could increase the risk of bleeding complications, making it unsafe for the patient. Option A) Alcoholism and B) Drug abuse are not direct contraindications to heparin therapy. While these conditions may impact a patient's overall health and treatment outcomes, they do not specifically contraindicate the use of heparin. Option C) Hypertension is also not a direct contraindication to heparin therapy. Heparin can be safely used in patients with hypertension as long as there are no other specific contraindications present. Educationally, understanding contraindications to medications is crucial for healthcare providers to ensure safe and effective treatment. In this case, recognizing that recent surgery in a high-risk bleeding area contraindicates heparin therapy highlights the importance of considering individual patient factors when making treatment decisions. This knowledge helps healthcare professionals provide optimal care tailored to each patient's specific needs and circumstances.
Question 4 of 5
A woman with myoclonic seizures is well controlled with lamotrigine. She becomes pregnant and begins to have breakthrough seizures. What is most likely happening?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pregnancy increases lamotrigine clearance via enhanced glucuronidation (UGT enzyme induction), lowering plasma concentrations and risking breakthrough seizures, as seen here. Worsening epilepsy is possible but less likely without prior progression. Increased concentrations would improve control, not worsen it. Loss of efficacy is unlikely if previously effective; pharmacokinetic changes are more plausible. Monitoring and dose adjustment during pregnancy, per epilepsy guidelines, address this common issue, making decreased concentrations the most likely cause.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has been changed from a first generation H1 receptor antagonist to a second generation H1 receptor antagonist. The nurse evaluates that the patient understands the benefit of this change when which statement is made?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Second-generation H1 antagonists (e.g., loratadine) are less lipophilic, reducing blood-brain barrier crossing, thus causing less sedation than first-generation ones (e.g., diphenhydramine). 'This drug will not make me as sleepy' shows the patient grasps this benefit, improving daily function. Alcohol still risks sedation. Dry mouth and urinary issues are anticholinergic effects less reduced in second-generation drugs. Choice D confirms understanding of the primary advantage.