The nurse suspects that the patient with stable angina is experiencing a side effect of the prescribed drug metoprolol (Lopressor) if the

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a blood pressure of 90/54 mm Hg indicates hypotension, a common side effect of metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can cause decreased heart rate and blood pressure. This can lead to symptoms like dizziness, weakness, and fainting. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because restlessness, agitation, feeling anxious, and normal sinus rhythm are not typical side effects of metoprolol.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased cardiac output related to cardiogenic shock. In this case, the patient's low blood pressure and high heart rate indicate poor cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is a life-threatening condition where the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. This is a priority nursing diagnosis as it requires immediate intervention to stabilize the patient's hemodynamics and prevent further deterioration. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they are valid concerns for the patient, they are not as immediately life-threatening as cardiogenic shock. Acute pain, anxiety, and stress overload can all be addressed once the patient's hemodynamic stability is ensured. However, without addressing the decreased cardiac output and cardiogenic shock first, the patient's condition could rapidly worsen and lead to serious consequences.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the Above). Smoking cessation reduces cardiovascular risks. Regular exercise improves heart health. Weight reduction can lower blood pressure and cholesterol levels. Each lifestyle change targets a specific risk factor for coronary artery disease, making all the choices essential for managing the condition effectively. Therefore, selecting all the options is the most comprehensive approach to address the client's coronary artery disease.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that primarily works by lowering heart rate and blood pressure. It does this by relaxing blood vessels and reducing the workload on the heart. It does not directly affect urine output, so choice C is incorrect. While diltiazem may have some impact on urine output indirectly through its effects on blood pressure, it is not a primary effect of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because diltiazem affects both heart rate and blood pressure, not just blood pressure alone. Choice D is incorrect because while diltiazem does lower heart rate and blood pressure, it does not directly increase urine output.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Check the infant's apical pulse for 1 minute. Before administering digoxin, it is crucial to assess the apical pulse for a full minute to ensure the heart rate is within the appropriate range (usually above 100 bpm in infants). Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so monitoring the apical pulse is essential to prevent potential adverse effects. A: Taking the infant's blood pressure is not the most appropriate intervention before administering digoxin as the focus should be on assessing the heart rate specifically. B: Checking the infant's respiratory rate is not directly related to the administration of digoxin, and assessing the pulse rate is more relevant. C: Checking the infant's radial pulse is not as accurate as assessing the apical pulse when monitoring for potential digoxin-induced changes in heart rate. In summary, the most appropriate intervention before digoxin administration is to check the infant's apical pulse for 1 minute to