ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse should expect Mr. Gabatan to have some spasticity of the lower extremities. To prevent the development of contractures, careful consideration must be given to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proper positioning. Proper positioning helps maintain joint alignment, prevents pressure ulcers, and reduces the risk of contractures by keeping the muscles in a neutral position. This is crucial in preventing complications associated with spasticity. A: Active exercise may exacerbate spasticity and lead to muscle fatigue, increasing the risk of contractures. B: Use of tilt board may not directly address the need for proper positioning to prevent contractures. C: Deep massage may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of maintaining proper positioning to prevent contractures.
Question 2 of 9
Mrs. Go is suspected of experiencing respiratory distress from a left-sided pneumothorax. She should be positioned:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: in a semi-fowler's position. This position helps to improve ventilation and oxygenation by allowing the unaffected lung to expand fully. It also prevents further compression of the affected lung. Trendelenburg position (B) could worsen the pneumothorax by causing more pressure on the affected lung. Prone position (C) is not recommended as it can further compress the affected lung. Placing the patient on the right side (D) would not be beneficial in this case as it does not facilitate lung expansion on the affected side.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff. problems during the immediate postoperative course ff. lumbar microdiskectomy should be reported to the physician immediately?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the inability to move the affected leg post lumbar microdiskectomy could indicate a serious complication like nerve damage or blood clot. This would require immediate medical attention to prevent further complications. Incisional pain (A) is common and can be managed with pain medication. A two-inch area of bleeding on the dressing (C) is concerning but can be managed with proper wound care unless it is excessive. Muscle spasm (D) is also common postoperatively and can be managed with medications or physical therapy.
Question 4 of 9
During the nursing interview Toni minimizes her visual problems talks about remaining in school to attempt advanced degrees, requests information about full-time jobs in nursing and mentions her desire to have several more children. The nurse recognizes her emotional responses as being:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Toni's behavior of minimizing her visual problems, focusing on future goals, seeking information about job opportunities, and expressing desire for more children reflects coping mechanisms used to deal with the exacerbation of her illness. This behavior suggests that she is trying to maintain a sense of normalcy and control in the face of her health challenges. A: Inappropriate euphoria is excessive happiness or excitement, which is not evident in Toni's behavior. C: Remission phase typically involves a decrease in symptoms, which is not reflected in Toni's situation. D: Realistic for her current level of physical functioning does not explain her behavior as coping mechanisms.
Question 5 of 9
An agitated, confused client arrives in the emergency department. The client’s history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. This amount of carbohydrate is recommended for treating hypoglycemia in clients with diabetes to quickly raise blood glucose levels without causing hyperglycemia. Consuming too little carbohydrate may not effectively raise blood glucose levels, while consuming too much may lead to a rapid spike followed by a rebound hypoglycemia. Options A and B provide insufficient amounts of carbohydrate, while option D provides excessive carbohydrate, increasing the risk of hyperglycemia. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice for effectively treating hypoglycemia in this client.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the ff are the symptoms of basilar skull fracture? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Raccoon eyes. Basilar skull fracture can result in periorbital bruising, known as raccoon eyes, due to blood pooling in the soft tissues around the eyes. This occurs because the fracture involves the base of the skull near the orbits. Choice B: Amnesia is not a typical symptom of basilar skull fracture. Amnesia may occur in head injuries but is not specific to basilar skull fractures. Choice C: Halo sign is a term used to describe a ring of clear fluid surrounding a blood spot, typically seen in cases of a cerebrospinal fluid leak from the ear or nose, not specific to basilar skull fractures. Choice D: Paresthesia, which refers to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, is not a common symptom of basilar skull fractures. It is more associated with nerve damage rather than fractures involving the base of the skull.
Question 7 of 9
A male client, age 45, undergoes a lumbar puncture in which CSF was extracted for a particular neurologic diagnostic procedure. After the procedure, he complains of dizziness and a slight headache. Which of the ff steps must the nurse take to provide comfort to the client? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Position the client flat for at least 3 hrs or as directed by the physician. Rationale: 1. Positioning the client flat helps prevent post-lumbar puncture headache by allowing the CSF to replenish and stabilize the pressure in the spinal canal. 2. The recommended time frame of 3 hours allows for adequate CSF reabsorption and reduces the likelihood of headache. 3. Following physician's direction is crucial to individualize care based on the specific situation. Summary of other choices: B: Encouraging fluid intake is generally good practice but may not directly alleviate post-lumbar puncture headache. C: Keeping the room well lit and playing soothing music may not address the physiological cause of the client's symptoms. D: Ambulation and leg exercises are not recommended immediately post-lumbar puncture as they may exacerbate dizziness and headache.
Question 8 of 9
. A client is diagnosed with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse should anticipate which laboratory test result?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased serum sodium level. In SIADH, there is an excessive release of ADH, causing water retention and dilution of sodium in the blood. This leads to hyponatremia. B: Increased blood urea nitrogen and C: Decreased serum creatinine level are not typically associated with SIADH. D: Increased hematocrit is not a typical finding in SIADH, as it is more related to dehydration. Therefore, the most anticipated laboratory test result in a client with SIADH is a decreased serum sodium level due to dilutional hyponatremia.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff suggestions should a nurse give breastfeeding mothers to prevent or eliminate mastitis and breast abscess? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: D is correct because cleanliness helps prevent infections. Washing hands and keeping breasts clean reduces the risk of mastitis and abscesses. A is incorrect because alternating breasts is a common practice in breastfeeding. B is incorrect as frequent nursing helps maintain milk supply and prevent engorgement, reducing the risk of mastitis. C is incorrect as breastfeeding itself is not a cause of mastitis or abscess; stopping abruptly can lead to further complications like engorgement.