The nurse should expect Mr. Gabatan to have some spasticity of the lower extremities. To prevent the development of contractures, careful consideration must be given to:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proper positioning. Proper positioning helps maintain joint alignment, prevents pressure ulcers, and reduces the risk of contractures by keeping the muscles in a neutral position. This is crucial in preventing complications associated with spasticity. A: Active exercise may exacerbate spasticity and lead to muscle fatigue, increasing the risk of contractures. B: Use of tilt board may not directly address the need for proper positioning to prevent contractures. C: Deep massage may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of maintaining proper positioning to prevent contractures.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Raccoon eyes. Basilar skull fracture can result in periorbital bruising, known as raccoon eyes, due to blood pooling in the soft tissues around the eyes. This occurs because the fracture involves the base of the skull near the orbits. Choice B: Amnesia is not a typical symptom of basilar skull fracture. Amnesia may occur in head injuries but is not specific to basilar skull fractures. Choice C: Halo sign is a term used to describe a ring of clear fluid surrounding a blood spot, typically seen in cases of a cerebrospinal fluid leak from the ear or nose, not specific to basilar skull fractures. Choice D: Paresthesia, which refers to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, is not a common symptom of basilar skull fractures. It is more associated with nerve damage rather than fractures involving the base of the skull.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because encouraging the patient to do leg exercises within the limits of his traction promotes independence by maintaining muscle strength and mobility. This helps prevent muscle atrophy and promotes circulation. Choice A focuses on pain management but does not directly promote independence. Choice C provides assistance but does not actively involve the patient in self-care. Choice D is important for overall care but does not directly promote independence through active patient involvement.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Oral antidiabetic agents target insulin resistance, common in type 2 diabetes. 2. Type 1 diabetes lacks insulin production, making oral agents ineffective. 3. Choice A is incorrect as insulin cannot be taken orally. 4. Choice C is incorrect as oral agents are not indicated for type 2 diabetes. 5. Choice D is incorrect as pregnancy does not affect the type of diabetes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weak, slow pulse. Circulatory overload typically presents with signs of fluid volume excess, such as moist gurgling respirations, distended neck veins, dyspnea, and coughing. A weak, slow pulse is not a characteristic sign of circulatory overload, as the heart rate may actually be elevated due to the increased fluid volume. Therefore, a weak, slow pulse would not be likely to occur in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it addresses the specific nursing intervention needed to prepare Mr. RR for the brain scanning test. By explaining to Mr. RR that the test will not be painful and that his head will be supported in place, the nurse helps alleviate any potential anxiety or fear he may have. This information reassures the patient and ensures his cooperation during the procedure. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing anticonvulsant therapy without medical approval could have serious consequences for Mr. RR's health. Choice B is also incorrect as obtaining consent is important, but it is not directly related to preparing Mr. RR for the test. Choice D is incorrect as it introduces potential negative outcomes without providing necessary information to prepare the patient for the test.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stage 2 hypertension. The patient's BP readings consistently fall within the range of 160-179 systolic or 100-109 diastolic, which aligns with the criteria for Stage 2 hypertension based on the current guidelines. This classification indicates a higher level of hypertension that requires prompt medical attention and intervention to reduce the risk of complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not correspond to the BP readings provided, falling outside the range for prehypertension, Stage 1 hypertension, and posthypertension.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is D because it emphasizes the importance of medical examination and diagnostic testing to determine if the man has an STD. Step 2: Visual inspection (choice B) is not reliable as some STDs may not present with visible symptoms. Step 3: Relying solely on appearance and condom use (choices A and C) does not guarantee protection against all STDs. Step 4: Choice D is the best option as it advocates for seeking professional medical advice for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant. This client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer due to nulliparity, which is a known risk factor. Women who have never been pregnant have a higher risk of developing ovarian cancer compared to those who have had children. Other choices are incorrect because contraceptives actually reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, having children can slightly decrease the risk, and having a child at a young age does not increase the risk significantly.