ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse should expect Mr. Gabatan to have some spasticity of the lower extremities. To prevent the development of contractures, careful consideration must be given to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proper positioning. Proper positioning helps maintain joint alignment, prevents pressure ulcers, and reduces the risk of contractures by keeping the muscles in a neutral position. This is crucial in preventing complications associated with spasticity. A: Active exercise may exacerbate spasticity and lead to muscle fatigue, increasing the risk of contractures. B: Use of tilt board may not directly address the need for proper positioning to prevent contractures. C: Deep massage may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of maintaining proper positioning to prevent contractures.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse understands that a patient with BP readings 164/102 and 176/100 on two separate occasions would be classified in which hypertension category?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stage 2 hypertension. The patient's BP readings consistently fall within the range of 160-179 systolic or 100-109 diastolic, which aligns with the criteria for Stage 2 hypertension based on the current guidelines. This classification indicates a higher level of hypertension that requires prompt medical attention and intervention to reduce the risk of complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not correspond to the BP readings provided, falling outside the range for prehypertension, Stage 1 hypertension, and posthypertension.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which of the following points would be appropriate to make?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because testicular cancer is indeed a highly curable type of cancer if detected early through self-examinations. This empowers the client to take control of their health. Choice B is incorrect as testicular cancer is detectable through self-examinations. Choice C is incorrect as testicular cancer is not the number one cause of cancer deaths in males; it is relatively rare. Choice D is incorrect as testicular cancer is more common in younger men, typically between the ages of 15 and 44.
Question 4 of 9
Nurse Beverly is giving preoperative instructions to Ian who is scheduled for an Ileostomy. Which of the following would be included?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because an Ileostomy involves diverting the small intestine to an opening in the abdominal wall, so the urine will not be affected. The pouch collects waste from the small intestine. Nasogastric tube (B) is not typically required for an Ileostomy. Laparoscope (C) is used for visualizing the abdomen, not the bowel. Drinking liquids (D) so soon after surgery can be risky and is not recommended.
Question 5 of 9
A 19-year-old student develops symptoms of respiratory alkalosis related to an anxiety attack. Which nursing intervention is appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have him breathe into a paper bag. Breathing into a paper bag helps increase the carbon dioxide levels in the blood, which can help reverse respiratory alkalosis caused by hyperventilation during an anxiety attack. This intervention helps to normalize the blood pH and alleviate symptoms. Incorrect choices: A: Making sure oxygen is administered as ordered is not appropriate for respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation. Oxygen therapy can worsen the condition by further reducing carbon dioxide levels. C: Placing the student in a semi-fowler's position does not directly address the primary issue of respiratory alkalosis and anxiety-induced hyperventilation. D: Coughing and deep breathing exercises may exacerbate the hyperventilation and worsen the respiratory alkalosis rather than alleviate the symptoms.
Question 6 of 9
When testing visual fields, the nurse is assessing which of the following parts of vision?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peripheral vision. When testing visual fields, the nurse evaluates the ability to see objects outside the direct line of sight, which is indicative of peripheral vision. Peripheral vision helps detect objects and movement in the side vision. Distance vision (B) refers to the ability to see clearly at a distance, while near vision (C) pertains to close-up vision. Central vision (D) is essential for focusing on details and seeing straight ahead. Therefore, A is the correct choice as it specifically pertains to the assessment of visual fields.
Question 7 of 9
What dietary advice should the nurse give to clients with HIV/AIDS?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decrease the intake of trace elements and antioxidant supplements. Clients with HIV/AIDS do not require additional trace elements and antioxidant supplements, as excessive intake can be harmful. HIV/AIDS already places stress on the immune system, so taking excessive supplements may lead to toxicity. It is important to focus on a balanced diet rich in essential nutrients rather than overloading the body with unnecessary supplements. Encouraging a healthy, balanced diet will help support overall health and immune function in clients with HIV/AIDS. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because encouraging excessive intake of fat-soluble vitamins, water-soluble vitamins, iron, and zinc can also lead to potential adverse effects. It is important to focus on meeting the recommended daily allowances for these nutrients rather than exceeding them.
Question 8 of 9
A client comes to her health care provider’s office because she is having abdominal pain. She has been seen for this problem before. What type of assessment would the nurse do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focused assessment. In this scenario, the client's abdominal pain is a known issue, so a focused assessment would be appropriate to gather specific information related to the current complaint. A focused assessment allows the nurse to concentrate on the particular problem at hand, which in this case is the abdominal pain. A: Initial assessment is not applicable as the client has been seen for this issue before. C: Emergency assessment is not necessary as the situation does not indicate an urgent or life-threatening condition. D: Time-lapsed assessment is not suitable because it involves assessing changes over time, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. In summary, a focused assessment is the most appropriate choice as it allows the nurse to address the client's specific complaint efficiently.
Question 9 of 9
Mr. RR is to have a brain scanning. Nursing intervention in preparation for this test includes:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it addresses the specific nursing intervention needed to prepare Mr. RR for the brain scanning test. By explaining to Mr. RR that the test will not be painful and that his head will be supported in place, the nurse helps alleviate any potential anxiety or fear he may have. This information reassures the patient and ensures his cooperation during the procedure. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing anticonvulsant therapy without medical approval could have serious consequences for Mr. RR's health. Choice B is also incorrect as obtaining consent is important, but it is not directly related to preparing Mr. RR for the test. Choice D is incorrect as it introduces potential negative outcomes without providing necessary information to prepare the patient for the test.