ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse should expect Mr. Gabatan to have some spasticity of the lower extremities. To prevent the development of contractures, careful consideration must be given to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Proper positioning helps maintain alignment and prevent deformities in muscles and joints. Step 2: It reduces the risk of contractures by ensuring that Mr. Gabatan's lower extremities are in optimal positions. Step 3: This promotes circulation and reduces pressure on bony prominences. Step 4: Active exercise may exacerbate spasticity, tilt board may not address positioning adequately, and deep massage may not prevent contractures effectively.
Question 2 of 9
A man with a history of diabetes and chronic lung disease is admitted to the hospital with prostate cancer. He has all the following symptoms. Which should the nurse address first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory rate 36/min. In this case, the nurse should address the respiratory rate first due to the patient's chronic lung disease, indicating potential respiratory distress. High respiratory rate may signify hypoxia, infection, or worsening lung function, posing immediate life-threatening risks. Addressing this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent respiratory failure. Fever (A) and difficulty urinating (B) are important but not as urgent as addressing potential respiratory distress. Painful legs and feet (D) may indicate peripheral neuropathy related to diabetes, which is important but not as critical as addressing the respiratory issue.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following lab value profiles should the nurse know to be consistent with hemolytic anemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (A): 1. Increased RBC: Hemolytic anemia leads to increased RBC production as the body compensates for the destruction of red blood cells. 2. Decreased bilirubin: Bilirubin levels decrease due to the accelerated breakdown of red blood cells. 3. Decreased Hgb and Hct: Hemolysis causes a decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit levels as red blood cells are destroyed. 4. Increased reticulocytes: Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells released by the bone marrow in response to increased RBC destruction. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as hemolytic anemia would lead to increased, not decreased, bilirubin levels. - Choice C is incorrect as hemolytic anemia would lead to decreased, not increased, Hgb and Hct levels. - Choice D is incorrect as hemolytic anemia would not lead to increased levels of all parameters
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is teaching the staff about the benefits of Nursing Outcomes Classification. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Nursing Outcomes Classification adds objectivity to judging a patient's progress by providing standardized criteria for assessing outcomes. This helps in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and tracking improvements accurately. Other choices are incorrect: A is wrong because Nursing Outcomes Classification includes 7 domains but not necessarily for level 1; B is incorrect as it uses a 5-point Likert scale, not a 3-point scale; and D is inaccurate because Nursing Outcomes Classification guides the selection of interventions based on the identified outcomes, not allowing complete freedom in choosing interventions.
Question 5 of 9
A client in the terminal stage of cancer is receiving continuous infusion of morphine (Duramorph) for pain management. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this drug?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. Morphine is an opioid that can cause respiratory depression as a side effect. A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min indicates hypoventilation, which is a potential adverse effect of morphine. This is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure or arrest. A: Voiding of 350mL of concentrated urine in 8 hours is not directly related to morphine's adverse effects. Morphine can cause urinary retention, not increased voiding. C: Irregular heart rate of 82 beats/min is within normal range and not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Morphine can cause bradycardia or tachycardia, but not irregular heart rate specifically. D: Pupils constricted and equal is a common side effect of morphine due to its effect on the central nervous system. This finding does not suggest an adverse effect; it is an expected pharmac
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because during the first phase of the nursing process (assessment), the nurse collects a comprehensive database of information about the patient's health status and needs. This data forms the foundation for identifying nursing diagnoses, planning interventions, and evaluating outcomes. Choices B, C, and D involve actions that occur in the subsequent phases of the nursing process (diagnosis, planning, and evaluation), not in the initial assessment phase. Therefore, A is the correct choice for the first phase.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the ff conditions is evident by persistent hoarseness?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Laryngeal cancer. Persistent hoarseness is a common symptom of laryngeal cancer due to vocal cord involvement. Laryngeal cancer causes changes in voice quality over time. Bacterial infection (A) usually presents with acute symptoms and resolves with treatment. Aphonia (B) is the complete loss of voice, not persistent hoarseness. Peritonsillar abscess (D) causes sore throat and difficulty swallowing, but not persistent hoarseness.
Question 8 of 9
The best way to tell whether or not a patient is breathing, is for the nurse to watch the movement of the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "Chest and nostrils." This is because observing the movement of the chest and nostrils is the most reliable way to determine if a patient is breathing. The chest rises and falls with each breath, and the nostrils may flare or move as air is inhaled and exhaled. Monitoring these areas provides a direct indication of respiratory effort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly reflect the act of breathing. Extremities, head, and eyeball movements are not reliable indicators of breathing function.
Question 9 of 9
A client with anemia has been admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Which assessment findings are characteristic of iron-deficiency anemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Anemia results in decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to tissue hypoxia. 2. Dyspnea (shortness of breath) occurs due to the body's attempt to increase oxygen intake. 3. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) compensates for decreased oxygen delivery. 4. Pallor (pale skin) is a classic sign of decreased red blood cells in iron-deficiency anemia. Summary: A: Night sweats, weight loss, and diarrhea are not typical manifestations of iron-deficiency anemia. B: Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia are non-specific symptoms and not specific to iron-deficiency anemia. D: Itching, rash, and jaundice are not commonly associated with iron-deficiency anemia.