ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse should expect a client with hypothyroidism to report which health concerns?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland is underactive, leading to symptoms like puffiness of the face and hands due to fluid retention. This occurs as a result of decreased metabolism. Options A and B are symptoms of hyperthyroidism, where the thyroid gland is overactive. Option D is a symptom of goiter, which is thyroid gland swelling, not specific to hypothyroidism. Therefore, the correct answer is C based on the characteristic symptoms of hypothyroidism.
Question 2 of 9
Patients with lymphoma are at risk for infection. Which of the ff. activities increases this risk?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Taking a walk outside. Patients with lymphoma have weakened immune systems, making them more susceptible to infections. Walking outside exposes them to various environmental pathogens, increasing the risk of infection. Going to church (A) and cleaning the house (B) can be done in controlled environments, while watching television (D) does not involve exposure to external pathogens like going for a walk outside does. Therefore, taking a walk outside poses the highest risk for infection among the given activities.
Question 3 of 9
Postural Hypotension is A drop in systolic pressure less than 10 mmHg when patient changes position from lying to sitting.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because postural hypotension is defined as a drop in systolic blood pressure of greater than 20 mmHg or a drop in diastolic blood pressure of greater than 10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing from a sitting or supine position. Therefore, a drop in systolic pressure greater than 10 mmHg when changing from lying to sitting is indicative of postural hypotension. Choice B is incorrect as postural hypotension is primarily defined by changes in systolic blood pressure, not diastolic. Choice C is incorrect because a drop in diastolic pressure greater than 10 mmHg is not the defining characteristic of postural hypotension. Choice D is not provided.
Question 4 of 9
Why are older adults with heart and blood vessel diseases susceptible to thrombophlebitis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: IV drugs and chemicals. Thrombophlebitis is inflammation of a vein with blood clot formation, commonly caused by irritants like IV drugs. Impaired mobility (C) and compromised circulation (D) are risk factors for thrombophlebitis, but not specific to older adults with heart and blood vessel diseases. A is incorrect as not all choices apply in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
A client is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis, an autoimmune disorder. When teaching the client and family about autoimmune disorders, the nurse should provide which information?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Autoimmune disorders include connective tissue (collagen) disorders. Rationale: Autoimmune disorders involve the immune system mistakenly attacking healthy cells and tissues in the body, which can lead to various conditions, including connective tissue disorders like rheumatoid arthritis. Providing this information to the client and family is crucial for understanding the nature of autoimmune disorders and the potential impact on the body. Summary of other choices: A: False-negative or false-positive serologic tests can occur in autoimmune disorders, so this statement is not specific enough to be the most appropriate information to provide. B: Advanced medical interventions can manage symptoms but not cure autoimmune disorders, making this statement inaccurate and misleading. D: Autoimmune disorders can present with a wide range of symptoms and can be challenging to diagnose, but this statement does not address the specific link between autoimmune disorders and connective tissue disorders.
Question 6 of 9
After receiving a dose of penicillin, a client develops dyspnea and hypotension. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing anaphylactic shock. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Administering epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock to reverse hypotension and bronchoconstriction. Intubation may be necessary if airway compromise occurs despite epinephrine. Paging an anesthesiologist (A) is not the priority. Administering penicillin antidote (C) is not indicated in anaphylaxis. Inserting a urinary catheter and infusing IV fluids (D) may be necessary later but not the priority in managing anaphylactic shock.
Question 7 of 9
A client who is receiving cyclosporine (Sandimmune) must practice good oral hygiene, including regular brushing and flossing of the teeth, to minimize gingival hyperplasia during long-term therapy with certain drugs. Which of the following drug falls into this category?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phenytoin (Dilantin). Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect, which can be minimized with good oral hygiene practices. Procainamide, Azathioprine, and Allopurinol are not associated with gingival hyperplasia. Therefore, the client receiving cyclosporine should focus on practicing good oral hygiene specifically when taking Phenytoin to minimize the risk of developing gingival hyperplasia.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following best defines the process of evaluating a nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because evaluating a nursing intervention involves collecting data to determine if the goals set for the intervention were achieved. This process helps in assessing the effectiveness of the intervention in meeting the desired outcomes. Option B is incorrect as it refers to the identification of nursing diagnoses for new problems, which is part of the nursing assessment phase, not evaluation. Option C is incorrect as adjusting the care plan to include collaborative interventions is part of the implementation phase, not evaluation. Option D is incorrect as performing client care tasks as per protocol is part of the implementation phase, not evaluation.
Question 9 of 9
Which iron-rich foods should the nurse encourage an anemic client requiring iron therapy to eat?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (Lamb and peaches) because lamb is a good source of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based foods. Peaches are high in vitamin C, which enhances iron absorption. Shrimp and tomatoes (A) have some iron but are not as rich in iron as lamb. Cheese and bananas (B) are not significant sources of iron. Lobster and squash (C) also do not provide as much iron as lamb. Overall, the combination of heme iron from lamb and vitamin C from peaches makes them the most suitable choices for an anemic client requiring iron therapy.