ATI RN
Pharmacology Practice Exam ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse routinely includes health teaching about vitamins to patients. Vitamin D has a major role in which process?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin D regulates calcium and phosphorus metabolism, promoting bone health by enhancing intestinal absorption of these minerals. Night blindness (A) is associated with vitamin A deficiency. Growth and development (C) are influenced by multiple vitamins, not just vitamin D. DNA and prothrombin synthesis (D) are unrelated to vitamin D.
Question 2 of 5
A female patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected. Why would the physician order antibiotics be given through the line rather than through a peripheral IV line?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering antibiotics through an infected central venous access device (CVAD) is often done to attempt to sterilize the catheter and salvage it, avoiding the need for removal and replacement. This approach is particularly useful for certain types of infections. While peripheral IV administration may be less painful or reduce infiltration risks, the primary goal in this scenario is to treat the infection directly at the source. Therefore, the correct rationale is to sterilize the catheter.
Question 3 of 5
A 38-year-old man with hypertension experiences a first ever attack of acute pain, redness and tenderness in the left first metatarsophalangeal joint ('podagra'). His medication is furosemide, calcium carbonate and irbesartan. Serum uric acid is 0.78 mmol/L (upper limit of normal for men 0.48 mmol/L). Which of the following is most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acute gout (podagra) requires rapid inflammation relief. Paracetamol offers analgesia but no anti-inflammatory effect, inadequate here. Aspirin, at low doses, retains uric acid, worsening gout; at high doses, it's uricosuric but not ideal acutely. Probenecid lowers uric acid long-term, not for acute attacks. Allopurinol prevents gout but can precipitate attacks if started now. Diclofenac, an NSAID, reduces inflammation and pain fast, the most appropriate acute treatment. Its efficacy targets gout's pathophysiology, critical for symptom control.
Question 4 of 5
Haloperidol:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, causes hypotension less than phenothiazines, so that's not its hallmark. It's highly prone to extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) like dystonia due to strong D2 receptor blockade, a true statement. Arrhythmias (e.g., QT prolongation) occur but aren't its primary issue. Antimuscarinic effects are minimal compared to other antipsychotics. Confusion is possible but not its defining toxicity. EPS prominence drives the need for adjunctive anticholinergics in treatment, a key consideration in schizophrenia management.
Question 5 of 5
The newly licensed nurse is preparing to administer a high dose of androgen to the female client. The nurse manager asks for the rationale. What is the best response by the new nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High-dose androgens in females are used palliatively for certain breast cancers, especially hormone-sensitive ones, to suppress estrogen-driven tumor growth, easing symptoms in advanced disease. Athletic performance enhancement via androgens, while feasible, isn't clinically indicated and is illegal in regulated contexts. Brain cancer lacks evidence for androgen treatment, as it doesn't target neurological tumors. Sexual reassignment uses testosterone for masculinization, but high doses in clinical settings typically tie to cancer care, not transition. Breast cancer aligns with a recognized therapeutic use, leveraging androgens' anti-estrogenic effects, making it the most valid clinical rationale here.