The nurse reviews the medication administration record (MAR) for a patient having an acute asthma attack. Which medication should the nurse administer first?

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Introduction to Nursing Chapter 1 Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse reviews the medication administration record (MAR) for a patient having an acute asthma attack. Which medication should the nurse administer first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Albuterol (Ventolin HFA) 2.5 mg per nebulizer. During an acute asthma attack, the priority is to quickly open up the airways to improve breathing. Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that works rapidly to relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow. Administering Albuterol via nebulizer allows for efficient delivery of the medication directly to the lungs. Methylprednisolone (A) is a corticosteroid that helps reduce airway inflammation but takes longer to have an effect. Salmeterol (C) is a long-acting bronchodilator used for maintenance therapy, not for immediate relief during an acute attack. Ipratropium (D) is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that can be used in combination with Albuterol, but Albuterol alone is the initial priority for acute symptom

Question 2 of 5

A 62-yr-old patient who has no history of hypertension or other health problems suddenly develops a blood pressure (BP) of 198/110 mm Hg. After reconfirming the BP. It is appropriate for the nurse to tell the patient that:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a sudden high blood pressure reading warrants further evaluation for diagnosis, treatment, and monitoring. This patient's elevated BP of 198/110 mm Hg puts them at risk for serious complications like stroke, heart attack, or kidney damage. It is crucial to assess the underlying cause, initiate appropriate treatment, and closely monitor the BP to prevent complications. Choice A is incorrect because waiting a few weeks for a recheck can delay necessary intervention. Choice B is incorrect as simply adjusting diet may not be sufficient to address the sudden spike in BP. Choice D is incorrect because while there is a risk of stroke, hospitalization may not be required immediately without further assessment and management.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse reminds a visitor to a patient who has an internal radiation implant to:Select all that do not apply.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Take off all metals, such as your watch and belt. Rationale: 1. Metals can interfere with the radiation therapy and cause harm to the visitor. 2. Removing metals ensures there is no risk of them getting heated up due to radiation exposure. 3. This precaution helps in minimizing any potential hazards during the visit. Summary: A: Avoid visitation if you are pregnant - Incorrect. Visitors who are pregnant should definitely avoid contact with internal radiation implants. C: Limit your visitation time - Incorrect. There is no mention of limiting visitation time as a precaution for radiation exposure. D: Wear a protective lead apron - Incorrect. This is typically recommended for healthcare workers, not visitors.

Question 4 of 5

A patient who has atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin. The nurse expects which medication to be given concurrently to treat this condition?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Warfarin (Coumadin). Warfarin is commonly given concurrently with digoxin in patients with atrial fibrillation to prevent blood clots and reduce the risk of stroke. Digoxin helps control heart rate in atrial fibrillation but does not prevent clot formation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the need for anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic, Inamrinone and Milrinone are inotropes used for heart failure, but none of these medications are indicated for anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation.

Question 5 of 5

The RN is analyzing serum laboratory results for a 73-year-old female client scheduled for surgery in 2 hours. The RN concludes that which result would warrant the most immediate notification of the physician?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time 22 seconds. This result indicates the client's blood clotting ability, crucial for surgery. A prolonged prothrombin time can lead to increased bleeding risk during surgery, requiring immediate physician notification. A: Potassium level within normal range, not urgent. C: Hemoglobin level slightly low but not immediately life-threatening. D: Creatinine level within normal range, not urgent for surgery.

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